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458 Terms

1
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Select the cell involved in humoral immunity.

B lymphocytes

2
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What process is described by opsonization?

Binding to cells or antigens

3
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Select the term that describes cells or tissue from a genetically different individual within the same species.

Allogeneic

4
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Select the substance that regulates the activity of other cells by binding to specific receptors.

Cytokines

5
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Which of the following is responsible for the activation of the classic pathway of complement?

Antibody bound to antigen

6
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What biological molecules are considered the most immunogenic?

Proteins

7
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What part of the immunoglobulin molecule distinguishes the isotype?

Heavy chain

8
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Select the immunoglobulin class produced first in the primary immune response.

IgM

9
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In a serologic test, the term prozone is also known as:

antibody excess.

10
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What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination test if a red cell suspension with a concentration greater than 5% is used?

False negatives

11
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After adding antigen and antibody to a test tube, one large agglutinate was observed. How should this reaction be graded?

4+

12
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Select the portion of the antibody molecule that imparts the antibody’s unique class function.

Constant region of the heavy chain

13
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What portion of the antibody molecule binds to receptors on macrophages and assists in the removal of antibody bound to red cells?

Fc fragment

14
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Select the region of the antibody molecule responsible for imparting unique antibody specificity.

Variable region

15
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What immunoglobulin class is capable of crossing the placenta?

IgG

16
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What immunoglobulin class reacts best at room temperature at immediate-spin?

IgM

17
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An antigen that originates from the individual is termed:

autologous

18
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Which of the following will cause an antigen to elicit a greater immune response?

Size greater than 10,000 daltons

19
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Extravascular destruction of blood cells occurs in the:

spleen

20
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An antibody identified in the transfusion service appeared to be reacting stronger following the second exposure to an antigen from a transfusion. The most likely explanation of this observation is:


All of the above

21
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Which of the following components in the complement cascade mediates the lysis of the target cells?

C5 to C9

22
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Which of the following requires adjustment in order to enhance the reaction of an antibody in vitro?

Increase the incubation time in the incubator

23
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Hemolysis was observed at room temperature when testing a patient’s serum with reagent red cells used for screening. When this test was repeated using the patient’s plasma, no hemolysis was observed. What was the most likely explanation for the different reactions?

Complement activation was inhibited by calcium in the plasma sample.

24
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Which immunoglobulin class is impacted by the zeta potential in a hemagglutination test?

IgG

25
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When testing for the A antigen in a patient, what would you use to perform the test?

Patient's red cells and anti-A

26
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A technologist added 4 drops of a 5% red cell suspension instead of the required 1 drop to a hemagglutination test. What is the potential consequence to the test results?

False-negative

27
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Efficient in activation of the complement cascade

IGM

28
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Has the highest number of antigen binding sites

IGM

29
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Found in secretions, such as breast milk

IgA

30
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Associated with allergic reactions and mast cell activation

IGE

31
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Has the highest serum concentration

IGG

32
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Associated with intravascular cell destruction

IgM

33
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Able to cross the placenta

IgG

34
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Associated with immediate-spin in vitro reactions

IGM

35
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One of the two types of light chains

KAPPA

36
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The type of immunoglobulins determined by the heavy chain

ISOTYPE

37
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Part of the antigen that the immunoglobulin binds to

EPITOPE

38
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Variable region of an immunoglobulin

IDIOTPYE

39
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Imparts flexibility to the immunoglobulin molecule

HING REGION

40
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Reagent used in the identification of ABO antibodies

A1 and B cells

41
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Reagent derived from plants used to distinguish group A1 from group A2 red cells

ABO antisera

42
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Reagent used to detect the presence of red cell antibodies

Svreening cells

43
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Reagent used to determine the ABO antigenic composition of a patient's red cells

ABO antisera

44
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Reagent used to identify the specificity of a red cell antibody

Panel cells

45
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Requires washing the cells several times before the addition of antihuman globulin reagent

Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test

46
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Detects IgG or complement-coated red cells

Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test

47
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Tests for certain clinical conditions such as hemolytic disease of the newborn and autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Direct antiglobulin test

48
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Incubation step is not necessary

Direct antiglobulin test

49
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Select the test that uses IgG-sensitized red cells (check cells).

Antiglobulin test

50
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Select the method that uses a dextran-acrylamide matrix.

Gel technology

51
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What reagent contains antibodies to multiple antigenic epitopes?

Polyclonal-based

52
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Which of the following items provides evidence for reagent red cell deterioration?

All of the above

53
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Reagent antibodies prepared from human sources are:

polyclonal in specificity.

54
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Monoclonal antibodies are prepared in:

vitro

55
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Which of the following is not an advantage of using a monoclonal antibody over a polyclonal antibody?

All variations of the antigen can be detected.

56
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Where are product limitations and technical considerations for each reagent located?

Product insert

57
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Solid-phase red cell adherence used for antibody detection has an advantage over tube testing because:

the endpoint is more clearly defined.

58
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Which of the following statements is true regarding IgG-sensitized red cells?

They must be used to confirm a negative antiglobulin tube test.

59
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What method displays a positive reaction as a compact red cell button?

Microtiter plate

60
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The antiglobulin test was performed using gel technology. A button of cells was observed at the bottom of the microtube following centrifugation. How do you interpret this result?

The result is a negative reaction.

61
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Which of the following statements is true regarding high-protein anti-D reagents?

All of the above are true.

62
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How would you interpret the results if both the anti-D reagent and the Rh control were 2+ agglutination reactions?

Unable to determine without further testing

63
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Which red cells are used to screen for antibodies in donor samples?

Pooled screening cells

64
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What specificities does polyspecific antihuman globulin contain?

Anti-IgG and anti-C3d.

65
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What temperature is used for incubation in the indirect antihuman globulin test?

37° C

66
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Why is incubation omitted in the direct antihuman globulin test?

The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo.

67
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In the solid-phase red cell adherence test, how does a negative test appear?

A button of cells on the bottom of the well

68
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Following centrifugation of the gel card, red cells are evenly dispersed throughout one of the microtubes. This reaction could be graded as a:

2+.

69
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What immunoglobulin class reacts best by antiglobulin testing?

IgG

70
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Which of the following red cell antigens do proteolytic enzymes destroy?

Antigens Fya and Fyb in the Duffy system

71
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What is the purpose of adding antibody-sensitized red cells following the antiglobulin test?

Check that the wash procedure was sufficient to remove unbound antibodies

72
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Why is polyethylene glycol reagent added to the screen or panel?

Increase the avidity of IgG antibodies.

73
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Rouleaux is a false-positive reaction caused by elevated serum protein levels. Which of the following tests would not likely be affected by an elevated protein level?

Direct antiglobulin test

74
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A person whose red cells type as M+N+ with antisera would be:

a heterozygote.

75
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The children of a group AB mother and a group B father could phenotype as all of the following except:

O

76
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In a family study, all four siblings in the family had a different blood type: A, B, O, and AB. What is the most likely genotypes of the parents?

AO and BO

77
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If anti-M was reacted with red cells that are M+N+, how would they compare with red cells that are M+N–?

Weaker

78
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A father carries the Xga blood group trait and passes it on to all of his daughters but to none of his sons. What type of inheritance pattern does this demonstrate?

X-linked dominant

79
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Of the following markers used to test for paternity, which marker provides the most useful statistical value?

Human leukocyte antigen typing

80
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Mitosis results in ______________________ chromosomes as the original.

two cells with the same number of

81
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When does crossing over occur?

Meiosis

82
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When an individual is group A, which of the following genetic terms applies?

Phenotype

83
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What is an advantage of Nucleic Acid Testing (NAT) for viral marker testing?

A small amount of DNA or RNA can be detected

84
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What is the meaning of the term autosomal?

A trait that is not carried on the sex chromosomes

85
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How is RNA different from DNA?

All of the above are true.

86
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When using the Hardy-Weinberg equation to calculate genetic frequencies, which of the following must be TRUE?

All of the above are true.

87
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If two traits occur higher in a population together than each occurs separately, they may be linked. What does this fact suggest?

The genes are close together on the same chromosome.

88
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What is the approximate probability of finding a compatible unit of blood for a D-positive patient with antibodies to C, E, and K, if the frequency of C is 70%, E is 30%, and K is 10%?

2 out of 10 units

89
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In relationship testing, a “direct exclusion” is established when a genetic marker is:

present in the child but absent in both the mother and alleged father.

90
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In a random population, 16% of the population is homozygous for a particular trait. What percentage of the same population is heterozygous for that particular trait?

48%

91
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How are most blood group systems inherited?

Autosomal codominant

92
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The linked HLA genes on each chromosome are inherited as a:

haplotype

93
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In the PCR reaction, what is the term for the short pieces of single-stranded DNA that are complementary and mark the sequence to be amplified?

Primers

94
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Which of the following clinical applications applies to molecular testing for blood group antigens?

All of the above

95
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A gene that does not express a detectable product

Amorphic genes

96
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When a gene product is expressed only when it is inherited by both parents

recessive

97
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Equal expression of two different inherited genes as in most blood group systems

Codominant genes

98
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Having two or more alleles at a given gene locus

polymphpic

99
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When two genes are close together on the same chromosome and are inherited as a "group" or "bundle"

haplotypes

100
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Technique used to replicate a specific DNA sequences

Polymerase chain reaction