Lecture Quiz 2 Part 2 Micro 290 WCU

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60 Terms

1
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Methods of microbial control called _______ indicating inhibition but not destruction of microbes

microbiostatic

2
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Alcohols are used for

antisepsis and disinfection

3
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Ultra high temperature sterilization effectively

removes all microbes that cause diseases or spoilage

4
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Hydrogen peroxide is an effective

disinfecting and sterilizing agent

5
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Which of the following describes flash pasteurization?

Heating at 72°C for 15 seconds

2 multiple choice options

6
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A chemical agent that kills pathogenic microbes in general is a(n)

germicide

7
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Which of the following statements is TRUE of disinfectants?

They are used on inanimate surfaces

2 multiple choice options

8
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Which of the following is an example of pasteurization?

Heat is used to kill potential pathogens in apple juice

2 multiple choice options

9
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Refrigeration is an effective germicidal method True or False

False

10
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Disinfecting agents naturally produced by microorganisms are

antibiotics

11
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Seventy percent alcohol is effective against

fungi

12
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Which of the following is the most difficult to inactivate?

Bacterial endospores

3 multiple choice options

13
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An antimicrobial that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis will result in which of the following?

Bacterial cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure

2 multiple choice options

14
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Most broad-spectrum antibiotics act by

inhibiting protein synthesis

15
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Drug-resistant populations of microbes arise when

exposure to drugs selectively kills sensitive cells, allowing overgrowth of resistant cells

16
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It is inappropriate to prescribe antibacterial agents to treat colds or flu because

These diseases are caused by viruses

17
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Some bacteria are resistant to antimicrobials due to the activity ________, which removes many of them

the pumps

18
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The tetracyclines interfere with

protein synthesis

19
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Some bacterial cells are resistant to a variety of antimicrobials because they actively pump the drugs out of the cell T/F

True

20
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A compound is extracted from a microbial culture and is modified in the laboratory for use as an oral medication. This product would be a(n)

semisynthetic antimicrobial

21
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Which of the following statements is true selective toxicity?

Selective toxicity takes advantage of structural and/or metabolic differences between host and pathogen

2 multiple choice options

22
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Amoxicillin is very effective for treating infections with Gram-positive bacteria but rarely causes side effects in humans. This is an example of

Selective toxicity

23
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A drug is effective on both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. It can therefore be described as a _____ drug.

Broad spectrum

24
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Bacillus licheniformis secretes a compound that inhibits the growth of other Gram-positive bacteria. This is an example of a(n)

antibiotic

25
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The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus is commonly found in the nasal cavity of healthy people. If inhaled into the lungs, however, it may cause pneumonia. Staphylococcus aureus is best described as

both resistant microbiota and opportunistic pathogen

26
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Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of a disease process?

incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence

3 multiple choice options

27
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T/F Microbial contamination always results in infection

False

28
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Which of the following situations might cause normal microbiota to become opportunistic pathogens?

treatment of a cancer patient with radiation

2 multiple choice options

29
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Which of the following situations is NOT a way in which a baby acquires normal microbiota?

microbes cross the placenta during pregnancy

2 multiple choice options

30
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Which of the following is considered a mechanical vector transmission?

Cockroach transmission of Shigella

2 multiple choice options

31
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Fomites are

inanimate objects involved in the indirect contact transmission of pathogens

2 multiple choice options

32
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Commensalism is best described as a(n)

relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits and the other is unharmed

2 multiple choice options

33
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Normal microbiota may cause disease if conditions change in the body T/F

True

34
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In commensalism, one member of the relationship harms the other T/F

False

35
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Mutualism is a relationship

that provides benefits for both members, sometimes to the point that one cannot live without the other

36
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Which of the following is a symptom of disease?

fatigue

3 multiple choice options

37
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The second line of defense against invading microbes includes

phagocytic white blood cells

38
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Fever is beneficial during viral infection because the higher temperature

increases the effectiveness of interferons

39
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Which of the following is the best definition of "microbial antagonism"?

the presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading the body

2 multiple choice options

40
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What antibacterial chemical is present in tear fluid?

Lysozome

41
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Sweat can cause damage to bacteria because it contains salt and lysozomes T/F

True

42
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Response to specific pathogens that can improve with subsequent exposure is

adaptive immunity

43
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Which of the following areas of the body have mucous membranes?

mouth, nasal cavity, and urinary system

3 multiple choice options

44
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Which of the following statements is true of eosinophils?

They secrete toxins onto the surface of helminth parasites

2 multiple choice options

45
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Which cell becomes a macrophage when leaving the bloodstream?

monocyte

3 multiple choice options

46
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The resident microbiota have no role in defense against pathogen invasion T/F

false

47
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The process of phagocytosis involve all of the following EXCEPT

secretion of cytotoxins

3 multiple choice options

48
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Cells of the second line of defense called ________ recognize and kill virus-infected cells

natural killer cells

2 multiple choice options

49
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Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name?

To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the epitope for which they are specific

2 multiple choice options

50
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Cell mediated immunity is a function of

T lymphocytes

3 multiple choice options

51
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The most prevalent antibody class in the blood is

IgG

3 multiple choice options

52
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Vaccination triggers an immune response which produces ______ immunity.

both active and passive

53
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Which of the following statements about T lymphocytes is FALSE?

T lymphocytes produce antibody molecules

3 multiple choice options

54
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A single B lymphocyte can recognize multiple antigenic determinants T/F

False

55
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Which of the following is a characteristic of the third line of defense that makes it significantly different from the second line?

The response is specific to a single antigen

2 multiple choice options

56
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Enhanced immune responses to subsequent exposures to an antigen to which the body has already been exposed are known as _____ responses

memory

3 multiple choice options

57
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The adaptive immune response requires exposure to specific epitopes for activation T/F

True

58
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What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person contracts a disease?

naturally acquired active immunity

3 multiple choice options

59
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There are relatively few antifungal medications avaialable compared to antibacterial drugs T/F

True

60
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The lymphocytes of adaptive immunity called ______ mature in the red bone marrow

B cells

3 multiple choice options