Bone and Joint- Final- LCCW

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161 Terms

1
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__________________ is a slow progressive physiological resorption of normal bone which is replaced by fibrous tissue mixed w/ haphazardly arranged trabeculae.

Fibrous Dysplasia (FD)

growing fibrous neoplasm

2
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The two great imitators of bone disease are ____________ and _____________.

FD; Paget's

3
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___________ people usually get FD because it occurs during _______________.

Young (8-14); skeletal growth

males=females

4
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FD is is located in the ___________________.

medullary cavity

5
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What is a name sign for FD?

ground glass appearance

6
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What happens to the cortex with FD?

endosteal scalloping -- eroded from within

normal cortex expands/deforms but DOES NOT break

7
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What are the 3 clinical patterns of FD?

1. monostotic (one bone)

2. polystotic (multiple bones)

3. McCune Albright Syndrome

8
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What is McCune Albright Syndrome?

Polystotic FD with endocrine abnormality

9
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_____________ is the most common pattern of FD.

Monostotic

70-75%

10
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75% of monostotic FD lesions occur in what four bones?

ribs, tibia, femur and skull

11
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McCune-Albright syndrome is associated with __________________ and __________________.

skin pigmentation; very early sexual development

12
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What is the name sign for the skin pigmentation associated w/ McCune-Albright Syndrome?

cafe au lait- coast of Maine (jagged border)

13
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True or false?

There is a periosteal response with FD.

False

There is no periosteal response.

14
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_____________ is a neurocutaneous congenital/inherited disorder.

Neurofibromatosis (NF)

15
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What are two AKAs for NF?

1. Von Recklinghausen's disease

2. Elephant man disease

16
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What are two skin findings associated with NF?

1. cafe au lait spots -- coast of California (smooth)

2. fibroma molluscum -- skin tags (show up radiographically)

17
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__________% of NF patients have family history of the disease.

60

18
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_____________% of pts w/ NF develop Cafe au Lait spots.

50

19
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The most common place for tumor formation from NF is the _______________.

IVF

20
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Name sign for Neurofibroma of spinal nerves within the IVF:

dumb-bell shaped lesions

21
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What effect do dumb-bell shaped lesions have on vertebrae?

posterior VB scalloping

enlarge IVF

scoliosis

increased kyphosis

22
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True or false?

NF is most common in people over 60.

False

Younger people usually get NF due to it being a congenital disease with chromosomal roots.

male=female

23
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_____________ is a radiographic finding of decreased bone density.

Osteopenia

24
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The __________ to __________ ratio is off if patents with Osteopenia.

osteoid; mineral

25
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_____________ is a decreased in total bone mass greater than what is expected for a given age, race, sex, however, the bone is in normal composition.

Osteoporosis

26
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With _______________ there is a normal osteoid to mineral ratio, but with ________________ the osteoid to mineral ratio is off.

Osteoporosis; osteopenia

27
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Osteoporosis is most clinically significant in the _____________ skeleton.

axial

28
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True or false?

Osteoporosis only causes the loss of cortical bone.

False

Both cortical and trabecular bone is lost.

29
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Osteoporosis causes "_____________" cortices due to decreased mineral content.

pencil thin

30
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What is a name sign associated with the biconcave fractures of the vertebrae of osteoporosis patients?

fish vertebrae

31
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Osteoporosis can be referred to as _____________ and it mimics the "corduroy cloth appearance" vertical striations.

pseudohemangioma

32
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_____________ tests for osteoporosis.

DEXA - Dual Energy X-Ray Absorptiometry

33
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_____________ fractures involve the whole VB collapsing (front & back).

Pathologic

can occur with any pathology

34
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_____________ fractures occur from a hyperflexion injury- the front collapsed but the back is maintained.

Simple Compression

35
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_____________ occurs from defective osteoid mineralization.

Osteomalacia/Rickets

36
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Osteomalacia occurs in _____________ while Rickets occurs in _____________.

adults; children

37
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______________ deficiency is the main cause of Ricketts and Osteomalacia.

Vitamin D

Vitamin D is responsible for the deposition of calcium into bone

38
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The growth plates of Rickets are _____________.

Name signs:

indistinct

frayed metaphysis; paint brush metaphysis

39
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Osteomalacia shows characteristic _____________ on X-Ray.

pseudofractures

40
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The classic location for pseudo fractures in Osteomalacia is the _____________ border of the ______________.

axillary; scapula

41
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Rickets creates swelling at the _____________ junction.

costochondral

42
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The swelling at the costochonral junction from Rickets is given the name sign ________________ due to the bead-like contour changes along the chest.

richitic rosary

43
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Hyperparthyroidism results in increase in the release of _____________.

PTH (parathyroid hormone)

44
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PTH functions to elevate _____________.

blood calcium level

45
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Name the four mechanisms used by PTH to increase blood calcium levels.

1. increases osteoclastic resorption of bone (liberates Ca)

2. increases renal formation of calcitrol

3. increases renal tubular resorption of Calcium

4. decreases renal tubular resorption of phosphate

46
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What does excess PTH secretion lead to?

hypercalcemia

hypophosphatemia

increased bone resorption

47
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_________ between the ages of ______________ typically get HPTH.

females; 30-50

48
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What are the two types of HPTH?

primary and secondary

49
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Primary HPTH is due to parathyroid ___________.

adenoma

50
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Secondary HPTH is due to __________.

another disease

51
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HPTH leads to _____________ resorption.

subperiosteal

52
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This subperiosteal resorption leads to _____________ outer cortical margins.

"lace-like"

53
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True or false?

HPTH leads to cortex-medullary in-distinction like rickets.

true

54
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HPTH leads to _____________ tumors.

brown

focal collection of blood

55
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HPTH can also lead to wide _____________ joints.

Name sign:

SI

rugby-jersey pattern (due to wide stripes)

56
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Labs for both osteomalacia/rickets and HPTH show an increase in _____________.

alkaline phosphate

bone is being destroyed and osteophytes release alkaline phosphate when they die.

57
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_____________ in an infection of bone.

Osteomyelitis

58
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What are the two forms of osteomyelitis?

suppurative and non suppurative (pus producing and non-pusproducing)

59
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_____________ is the most common cause of suppurative osteomyelitis.

Staph Aureus

60
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_____________ is the most common cause of non-suppurative osteomyelitis.

TS

aka Pott's Disease

61
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_____________ is an infection of the joint.

Septic Arthritis

62
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Suppurative osteomyelitis in adults causes _____________ disc destruction.

early

63
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Suppurative osteomyletis starts in the ___________ and destroys ___________ and ______________.

spine; vertebral end plates; disc space

64
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Name four pathways for infection to invade bone.

1. Hematogenous spread

2. Contiguous source -- ie. tooth infection

3. Direct implantation -- ie. dog bite

4. Postoperative (iatrogenic)

65
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Suppurative osteomyelitis typically effects _____________ in children and the _____________ in adults.

extremities; spine

66
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What is the favoured location of osteomyelitis?

medullary cavity

67
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_____________ is the necrotic fragment of bone.

Sequestrum

dead bone

68
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_____________ is the collar of new bone -- body attempts to wall off necrotic bone.

Involucrum

69
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The radiographic latent period for the extremities is _________ days and for the spine is __________ days.

10; 21

70
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_____________ is an infection of bone by Mycobacterium tuberculosi.

Tubercular Spondylitis.

71
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What is an AKA for Tubercular Spondylitis?

Pott's Disease

72
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The _________ lesion is the name for the hematogenous spread of primary infection from respiratory tract in Pott's disease.

gong

73
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TS is most prevalent in the ________ three decades.

first

male=female

74
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Pathogens of TS travel through the ________________.

bloodstream

75
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What are four clinical presentations of Pott's disease?

1. chronic/insidious back pain

2. decreased ROM

3. focal tenderness

4. tubercular arthritis (knee and hip)

76
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TS is most commonly located in the lower ____________ and upper _____________.

thoracic; lumbar

77
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Pott's has a latent period of ________________.

21 days

78
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________________ deformity is typically seen on X-Rays of Pott's patients.

Gibbus

anterior wedging

79
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TS is non-suppurative but does produce ________________ instead of puss.

caseous necrosis

cheese like by product that creates cold abscesses

80
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The most common location for caseous necrosis is the ________.

psoas

81
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A ________________ is a discontinuity of bone.

fracture

82
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An _____________ fracture penetrates the skin and is at increased risk of infection.

open

closed does not penetrate the skin

83
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A _______________ fracture is when the bone breaks into many pieces. A ________________ fracture is when the bone breaks into 2 pieces.

comminuted; non-comminuted

84
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A _____________ fracture is through the whole bone (cortex to cortex)

complete

85
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A fracture that is only on one side and not through the whole bone is ________________.

incomplete

86
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Complete fractures occur in ________________ and incomplete fractures occur in ________________.

adults; children

87
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________________ lesions are characteristic of non suppurative osteomyelitis.

Skip

88
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________________ fractures involve a disruption of the cortex on one side.

Name sign:

Greenstick

hickory stick

89
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True or false?

Children under ten years old get Greenstick fractures.

True

90
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________________ fractures involve a piece of bone being torn off by the pull of muscle or ligaments.

Avulsion

91
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A ________________ fracture is a type of Avulsion Fracture.

chip

92
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Avulsion fractures are most common at the ________________.

apophysis

i.e. trochanter tuberosites

93
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________________ fractures involve a telescoping of trabecular and therefore a decrease in bone size.

Compression

94
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________________ fractures are micro fractures due to repetitive stress.

Stress

95
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________________ fractures are hidden and can't see them on X-Ray.

Occult

96
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________________ fractures involve uncalcified osteoid.

Pseudofractures

97
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________________ is a triquetrum fracture.

Fisher's

98
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What are the 3 stages of healing for a fracture?

1. inflammatory phase

2. reparative (metabolic) phase

3. remodeling phase

99
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Hemanotoma formation, vascular network, ingrowth of fibroblasts and callus formation happen during the ______________ phase of fracture healing.

inflammatory

100
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Replacement of coarsely woven osteoid with more mature bone happens during the ______________ phase of fracture healing.

reparative (metabolic) phase