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__________________ is a slow progressive physiological resorption of normal bone which is replaced by fibrous tissue mixed w/ haphazardly arranged trabeculae.
Fibrous Dysplasia (FD)
growing fibrous neoplasm
The two great imitators of bone disease are ____________ and _____________.
FD; Paget's
___________ people usually get FD because it occurs during _______________.
Young (8-14); skeletal growth
males=females
FD is is located in the ___________________.
medullary cavity
What is a name sign for FD?
ground glass appearance
What happens to the cortex with FD?
endosteal scalloping -- eroded from within
normal cortex expands/deforms but DOES NOT break
What are the 3 clinical patterns of FD?
1. monostotic (one bone)
2. polystotic (multiple bones)
3. McCune Albright Syndrome
What is McCune Albright Syndrome?
Polystotic FD with endocrine abnormality
_____________ is the most common pattern of FD.
Monostotic
70-75%
75% of monostotic FD lesions occur in what four bones?
ribs, tibia, femur and skull
McCune-Albright syndrome is associated with __________________ and __________________.
skin pigmentation; very early sexual development
What is the name sign for the skin pigmentation associated w/ McCune-Albright Syndrome?
cafe au lait- coast of Maine (jagged border)
True or false?
There is a periosteal response with FD.
False
There is no periosteal response.
_____________ is a neurocutaneous congenital/inherited disorder.
Neurofibromatosis (NF)
What are two AKAs for NF?
1. Von Recklinghausen's disease
2. Elephant man disease
What are two skin findings associated with NF?
1. cafe au lait spots -- coast of California (smooth)
2. fibroma molluscum -- skin tags (show up radiographically)
__________% of NF patients have family history of the disease.
60
_____________% of pts w/ NF develop Cafe au Lait spots.
50
The most common place for tumor formation from NF is the _______________.
IVF
Name sign for Neurofibroma of spinal nerves within the IVF:
dumb-bell shaped lesions
What effect do dumb-bell shaped lesions have on vertebrae?
posterior VB scalloping
enlarge IVF
scoliosis
increased kyphosis
True or false?
NF is most common in people over 60.
False
Younger people usually get NF due to it being a congenital disease with chromosomal roots.
male=female
_____________ is a radiographic finding of decreased bone density.
Osteopenia
The __________ to __________ ratio is off if patents with Osteopenia.
osteoid; mineral
_____________ is a decreased in total bone mass greater than what is expected for a given age, race, sex, however, the bone is in normal composition.
Osteoporosis
With _______________ there is a normal osteoid to mineral ratio, but with ________________ the osteoid to mineral ratio is off.
Osteoporosis; osteopenia
Osteoporosis is most clinically significant in the _____________ skeleton.
axial
True or false?
Osteoporosis only causes the loss of cortical bone.
False
Both cortical and trabecular bone is lost.
Osteoporosis causes "_____________" cortices due to decreased mineral content.
pencil thin
What is a name sign associated with the biconcave fractures of the vertebrae of osteoporosis patients?
fish vertebrae
Osteoporosis can be referred to as _____________ and it mimics the "corduroy cloth appearance" vertical striations.
pseudohemangioma
_____________ tests for osteoporosis.
DEXA - Dual Energy X-Ray Absorptiometry
_____________ fractures involve the whole VB collapsing (front & back).
Pathologic
can occur with any pathology
_____________ fractures occur from a hyperflexion injury- the front collapsed but the back is maintained.
Simple Compression
_____________ occurs from defective osteoid mineralization.
Osteomalacia/Rickets
Osteomalacia occurs in _____________ while Rickets occurs in _____________.
adults; children
______________ deficiency is the main cause of Ricketts and Osteomalacia.
Vitamin D
Vitamin D is responsible for the deposition of calcium into bone
The growth plates of Rickets are _____________.
Name signs:
indistinct
frayed metaphysis; paint brush metaphysis
Osteomalacia shows characteristic _____________ on X-Ray.
pseudofractures
The classic location for pseudo fractures in Osteomalacia is the _____________ border of the ______________.
axillary; scapula
Rickets creates swelling at the _____________ junction.
costochondral
The swelling at the costochonral junction from Rickets is given the name sign ________________ due to the bead-like contour changes along the chest.
richitic rosary
Hyperparthyroidism results in increase in the release of _____________.
PTH (parathyroid hormone)
PTH functions to elevate _____________.
blood calcium level
Name the four mechanisms used by PTH to increase blood calcium levels.
1. increases osteoclastic resorption of bone (liberates Ca)
2. increases renal formation of calcitrol
3. increases renal tubular resorption of Calcium
4. decreases renal tubular resorption of phosphate
What does excess PTH secretion lead to?
hypercalcemia
hypophosphatemia
increased bone resorption
_________ between the ages of ______________ typically get HPTH.
females; 30-50
What are the two types of HPTH?
primary and secondary
Primary HPTH is due to parathyroid ___________.
adenoma
Secondary HPTH is due to __________.
another disease
HPTH leads to _____________ resorption.
subperiosteal
This subperiosteal resorption leads to _____________ outer cortical margins.
"lace-like"
True or false?
HPTH leads to cortex-medullary in-distinction like rickets.
true
HPTH leads to _____________ tumors.
brown
focal collection of blood
HPTH can also lead to wide _____________ joints.
Name sign:
SI
rugby-jersey pattern (due to wide stripes)
Labs for both osteomalacia/rickets and HPTH show an increase in _____________.
alkaline phosphate
bone is being destroyed and osteophytes release alkaline phosphate when they die.
_____________ in an infection of bone.
Osteomyelitis
What are the two forms of osteomyelitis?
suppurative and non suppurative (pus producing and non-pusproducing)
_____________ is the most common cause of suppurative osteomyelitis.
Staph Aureus
_____________ is the most common cause of non-suppurative osteomyelitis.
TS
aka Pott's Disease
_____________ is an infection of the joint.
Septic Arthritis
Suppurative osteomyelitis in adults causes _____________ disc destruction.
early
Suppurative osteomyletis starts in the ___________ and destroys ___________ and ______________.
spine; vertebral end plates; disc space
Name four pathways for infection to invade bone.
1. Hematogenous spread
2. Contiguous source -- ie. tooth infection
3. Direct implantation -- ie. dog bite
4. Postoperative (iatrogenic)
Suppurative osteomyelitis typically effects _____________ in children and the _____________ in adults.
extremities; spine
What is the favoured location of osteomyelitis?
medullary cavity
_____________ is the necrotic fragment of bone.
Sequestrum
dead bone
_____________ is the collar of new bone -- body attempts to wall off necrotic bone.
Involucrum
The radiographic latent period for the extremities is _________ days and for the spine is __________ days.
10; 21
_____________ is an infection of bone by Mycobacterium tuberculosi.
Tubercular Spondylitis.
What is an AKA for Tubercular Spondylitis?
Pott's Disease
The _________ lesion is the name for the hematogenous spread of primary infection from respiratory tract in Pott's disease.
gong
TS is most prevalent in the ________ three decades.
first
male=female
Pathogens of TS travel through the ________________.
bloodstream
What are four clinical presentations of Pott's disease?
1. chronic/insidious back pain
2. decreased ROM
3. focal tenderness
4. tubercular arthritis (knee and hip)
TS is most commonly located in the lower ____________ and upper _____________.
thoracic; lumbar
Pott's has a latent period of ________________.
21 days
________________ deformity is typically seen on X-Rays of Pott's patients.
Gibbus
anterior wedging
TS is non-suppurative but does produce ________________ instead of puss.
caseous necrosis
cheese like by product that creates cold abscesses
The most common location for caseous necrosis is the ________.
psoas
A ________________ is a discontinuity of bone.
fracture
An _____________ fracture penetrates the skin and is at increased risk of infection.
open
closed does not penetrate the skin
A _______________ fracture is when the bone breaks into many pieces. A ________________ fracture is when the bone breaks into 2 pieces.
comminuted; non-comminuted
A _____________ fracture is through the whole bone (cortex to cortex)
complete
A fracture that is only on one side and not through the whole bone is ________________.
incomplete
Complete fractures occur in ________________ and incomplete fractures occur in ________________.
adults; children
________________ lesions are characteristic of non suppurative osteomyelitis.
Skip
________________ fractures involve a disruption of the cortex on one side.
Name sign:
Greenstick
hickory stick
True or false?
Children under ten years old get Greenstick fractures.
True
________________ fractures involve a piece of bone being torn off by the pull of muscle or ligaments.
Avulsion
A ________________ fracture is a type of Avulsion Fracture.
chip
Avulsion fractures are most common at the ________________.
apophysis
i.e. trochanter tuberosites
________________ fractures involve a telescoping of trabecular and therefore a decrease in bone size.
Compression
________________ fractures are micro fractures due to repetitive stress.
Stress
________________ fractures are hidden and can't see them on X-Ray.
Occult
________________ fractures involve uncalcified osteoid.
Pseudofractures
________________ is a triquetrum fracture.
Fisher's
What are the 3 stages of healing for a fracture?
1. inflammatory phase
2. reparative (metabolic) phase
3. remodeling phase
Hemanotoma formation, vascular network, ingrowth of fibroblasts and callus formation happen during the ______________ phase of fracture healing.
inflammatory
Replacement of coarsely woven osteoid with more mature bone happens during the ______________ phase of fracture healing.
reparative (metabolic) phase