anatomy final practice exam

during muscle relaxation, Ca is pumped back into the SR against the concentration gradient. this is an example of what kind of transport

a. active

b. passive

c. facilitated diffusion

d. bulk flow

a. active

in secondary active transport, antiporters transport substance into cell while transporting different substances out of the cell while supporters transport two different substances in the same direction

a. true

b. false

a. true

energy for secondary active transport is obtained how?

a. directly from hydrolysis of ATP

b. directly from ionic gradients created by primary active transport

c. indirectly from ionic gradients created by primary active transport

d. the electrochemical gradient created by primary active transport

c. indirectly from ionic gradients created by primary active transport

all of the following affect the RMP except for what?

a. K+

b. Na+

c. Cl-

d. two of these

c. Cl-

all of the following are functions of connective tissue except for what?

a. protects and support body organs

b. insulates

c. bind tissues together

d. covers body surfaces

d. covers body surfaces

what does connective tissue arise from?

a. mesenchyme embryonic tissue

b. fibroblasts

c. collagen fibers

d. ground substances

a. mesenchyme embryonic tissue

what is the CT cell that is responsible for an inflammatory response?

a. adipocyte

b. mast cell

c. leukocyte

d. macrophage

b. mast cell

the spleen is made up of stroma made of what kind of tissue?

a. loose areolar CT

b. loose reticular CT

c. loose adipose CT

d. dense irregular CT

b. loose reticular CT

what part of the brain is responsible for speech and planning voluntary motor activity?

a. premotor cortex

b. prefrontal cortex

c. brocas area

d. auditory association area

c. brocas area

because cartilage is highly vascularized it takes longer to heal

a. true

b. false

b. false

what is the most abundant cartilage in the body

a. fibrocartilage

b. hyaline cartilage

c. elastic cartilage

d. none of these

b. hyaline cartilage

within a compact bone, what is the space that contains the osteocyte?

a. osteon

b. lamella

c. lacuna

d. caniculi

c. lacuna

what membrane covers the lining of ventral body cavities and organs?

a. mucous

b. synovial

c. cutaneous

d. serous

d. serous

what part of the gross anatomy of a long bone is described as a disc of hyaline cartilage that is replaced by bone during childhood when bones are growing?

a. epiphyseal line

b. epiphyseal plate

c. diploë

d. trabeculae

b. epiphyseal plate

the inner layer of the periosteum is referred to as what?

a. osteogenic layer

b. osteoblast layer

c. osteoid layer

d. osteoclastic layer

a. osteogenic layer

where do we find red bone marrow in adults?

a. cavity of diaphysis

b. epiphyses of humorous and femur

c. dipolë and some irregular bones

d. two of these

d. two of these (b and c)

the primary brain vesicle prosencephalon gives rise to what two secondary brain vesicles?

a. mesencephalon and mesencephalon

b. telencephalon and diencephalon

c. mylencephalon and mesencephalon

d. telencephalon and mesencephalon

b. telencephalon and diencephalon

what is the starting material of intramembranous ossification?

a. mesenchyme

b. hyaline cartilage

c. osteogenic cells

d. periosteal bud

a. mesenchyme

what sulcus in the brain separates the frontal and parietal lobe?

a. lateral

b. parieto-occipital

c. central

d. longitudinal

c. central

what breaks down inorganic components during bone resorption?

a. hydrochloric acid

b. lysozymes

c. osteoid

d. hydroxyapatite

a. hydrochloric acid

what adult brain structure arises from the mesencephalon?

a. midbrain

b. diencephalon

c. pons

d. medulla oblongata

a. midbrain

skeletal muscle is striated and voluntary while smooth muscle is unstriated and involuntary

a. true

b. false

a. true

which connective tissue wrapping surrounds each fascicle?

a. endomysium

b. perimysium

c. epimysium

d. pericardium

b. perimysium

which of the following does troponin NOT bind to?

a. actin

b. tropomyosin

c. calcium

d. myosin head

d. myosin head

which of the following is the antagonistic muscle to the sternocleidomastoid?

a. subscapularis

b. splenius

c. triceps brachii

d. infraspinatus

b. splenius

the origin is the point of attachment to moveable bone

a. true

b. false

b. false

the intercostals are named based off their ________

a. location

b. shape

c. size

d. number of origins

a. location

which of the following is an example of a convergent muscle?

a. orbicularis oris

b. sartorius

c. biceps brachii

d. pectoralis major

d. pectoralis major

if the load is located between the effort and the fulcrum, what kind of lever would it be?

a. first class lever

b. second class lever

c. third class lever

d. mechanical advantage

b. second class lever

which of the following is NOT considered a gated ion channel?

a. leakage channel

b. chemical channel

c. voltage channel

d. mechanical channel

a. leakage channel

an action potential is an incoming signal operating over a short distance

a. true

b. false

b. false

which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a graded potential?

a. it can be depolarizations or hyperpolarizations

b. increases in magnitude with distance

c. localized changed in membrane potential

d. all of these are correct

b. increases in magnitude with distance

which of the following describes a spatial summation?

a. 2 simultaneous stimuli at different locations cause EPSP's that add together

b. 2 excitatory stimuli close in time cause EPSPs that add together

c. 2 stimuli separated in time cause EPSPs that not add together

d. changes in membrane potential can cancel each other out

a. 2 simultaneous stimuli at different locations cause EPSP's that add together

what gland is connected to the hypothalamus?

a. pineal

b. pituitary

c. thyroid

d. two of these

b. pituitary

association fibers are tracts of cerebral white matter that run horizontally, connecting different parts of the same hemisphere

a. true

b. false

a. true

what structure produces dopamine?

a. basal nuclei

b. red nucleus

c. gustatory cortex

d. substantia nigra

d. substantial nigra

what is the function of the medulla oblongata?

a. controls force and rate of heart beat and BP

b. controls rhythm of breathing

c. controls reflexes such as vomiting, hiccuping, swallowing etc.

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

which of the following does NOT protect the brain?

a. blood brain barrier

b. meninges

c. CSF

d. langerhan cells in the CSF

d. langerhan cells in the CSF

dura mater is found only in the brain, not the spinal cord

a. true

b. false

a. true

what structure within the meninges contains CSF?

a. subarchnoid space

b. periosteal layer of dura mater

c. choroid plexus

d. subdural space

a. subarachnoid space

in the spinal cord, dorsal roots transmit only efferent impulses while ventral roots only transmit afferent impulses

a. true

b. false

b. false

what do the spinocerebellar tracts sense?

a. coarse touch, pressure, pain and temperature

b. muscle/tendon stretch

c. fine touch

d. two of these

b. muscle/tendon stretch

control of postural muscles is the function of what descending tract?

a. tectospinal

b. vestibulopsinal

c. reticulospinal

d. two of these

d. two of these (b and c)

severe damage to the ventral root or ventral horn will result in what?

a. flaccid paralysis

b. spastic paralysis

c. quadriplegia

d. paraplesia

a. flaccid paralysis

which of the following sensory receptors responds to change in body position?

a. exteroceptors

b. interceptors

c. proprioceptors

d. mechanoreceptors

c. proprioceptors

which of the following describes a bulbous corpuscle (Ruffini ending)?

a. encapsulated nerve ending that responds to light touch from the papillary layer of the dermis

b. encapsulated nerve ending that responds to deep, continuous pressure in the dermis

c. non encapsulated nerve ending that responds to deep, continuous pressure in the dermis

d. non encapsulated nerve ending that responds to temperature, chemical change, pain and pressure

b. encapsulated nerve ending that responds to deep, continuous pressure in the dermis

which encapsulated nerve ending is found close to a muscles insertion?

a. tendon organs

b. muscle spindles

c. lamellar (pacinian) corpuscles

d. tactile meissners corpuscles

a. tendon organs

what cranial nerves both sensory and motor and is responsible for taste and saliva secretion?

a. glossopharyngeal

b. facial

c. vagus

d. trigeminal

a. glossopharyngeal

the phrenic nerve belongs to what plexus?

a. sacral plexus

b. thoracic plexus

c. lumbar plexus

d. cervical plexus

d. cervical plexus

all somatic motor neurons release Ach and the effect can be either stimulatory or inhibitory

a. true

b. false

b. false

where are the cell bodies of the two neuron chain found in the autonomic NS located in the CNS?

a. ventral horn of the spinal cord

b. lateral horn of the spinal cord

c. dorsal roots of the spinal cord

d. cell bodies of the two neuron chain canoe found anywhere in the spinal cord

b. lateral horns of spinal cord

which of the following is a neurotransmitter found in the ANS?

a. acetylcholine

b. norepinephrine

c. serotonin

d. two of the above

d. two of the above (a and b)

which division of the PNS is responsible for increasing heart rate and dilating bronchioles?

a. sympathetic

b. parasympathetic

c. somatic

d. sensory (afferent)

a. sympathetic

parasympathetic fibers are craniosacral and originate in the brain and sacral spinal cord

a. true

b. false

a. true

which of the following correctly describes sympathetic fibers?

a. short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers with ganglia that lie close to the spinal cord

b. long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers with ganglia that lie close to the spinal cord

c. long preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers that lie near the effector organ

d. long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers that lie close to the effector organ

a. short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers with ganglia that lie close to the spinal cord

the sacral part of the parasympathetic division serves what part of the body?

a. distal half of large intestine

b. pelvic organs

c. respiratory organs

d. two of the above

d. two of the above (a and b)

what cholinergic receptor is found on the sarcolemma of skeletal muscle?

a. nicotinic (N1)

b. nicotinic (N2)

c. muscarinic (M1)

d. muscarinic (M3)

b. nicotinic (N2)

alpha 2 receptor acts as an inhibitory response on the gut muscle with beta 1 on the heart act as a stimulatory response on the heart

a. true

b. false

a. true

what structure of the eyelid contains oil and swear glands and is responsible for producing whitish secretions

a. tarsal plates

b. tarsal (meibornian) glands

c. lacrimal caruncle

d. palpebral fissure

c. lacrimal caruncle

what do lacrimal secretions contain?

a. mucus

b. antibodies

c. antibacterial lysozymes

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

what is the action of the superior rectus extrinsic eye muscle?

a. depresses eye and turns it medially

b. elevates eye and turns it laterally

c. elevates eye and turns it medially

d. depressed eye and turns it laterally

c. elevates eye and turns It medially

which of the following extrinsic eye muscles is NOT controlled by the oculomotor cranial nerve?

a. medial rectus

b. superior rectus

c. superior oblique

d. inferior oblique

c. superior oblique

what regions of the eye make up the fibrous layer?

a. choroid, ciliary body and iris

b. sclera and cornea

c. choroid and cornea

d. retina and iris

b. sclera and cornea

distance vision and dim light cause the pupils to constrict

a. true

b. false

b. false

which of the following characteristics of the lens is incorrect?

a. biconvex

b. transparent

c. flexible

d. vascularized

d. vascularized

what is the name of the structural abnormality when there are unequal curvatures of different parts of the cornea or lens that results in blurry vision?

a. emmetropic

b. myopic

c. hyperopic

d. astigmatism

d. astigmatism

which of the following represents the correct pathway of light through the eye?

a. light enters eye- cornea- lens- aqueous humor- neural layer of retina

b. light enters eye- cornea- aqueous humor- lens- vitreous humor- neural layer of retina

c. lens- light enters eye- cornea- aqueous humor- vitreous humor- neural layer of retina

d. light enters eye- cornea- vitreous humor- lens- aqueous humor- neural layer of retina

b. light enters eye- cornea- aqueous humor- lens- vitreous humor-neural layer of retina

what part of the ear contains ceruminous glands?

a. pinna

b. external acoustic meatus

c. pharyngotympanic tube

d. ear ossicles

b. external acoustic meatus

what is the first step in hearing

a. pressure waves cause tympanic membranes to vibrate

b. sounds create pressure waves

c. vibrations of sounds cause tympanic membrane to vibrate

d. vibrations of sounds displaces fluid in cochlea creating waves which creates electrical impulses

b. sounds create pressure waves

what part of the inner ear contains hearing receptors?

a. cochlea

b. vestibule

c. semicircular

d. ear ossicles

a. cochlea

what is the name for a middle ear infection?

a. otitis media

b. tinnitus

c. vertigo

d. conjunctivitis

a. otitis media