PTCB EPIC REVIEW

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82 Terms

1
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When handing a finished prescription to a pt, the pharmtech notices that the pt date of birth is incorrect the technician should?

A. dispense the medication w/o verifying the DOB

B.take the medication back to the pharmacist for review

C. change the DOB in the system to match the pt

D. tell the pharmacist about the incorrect DOB after the pt leaves

B.take the medication back to the pharmacist for review

2
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Profound sedation, respiratory depression, coma, or death may occur when clonazepam is taken concomitantly with

A. tamozifen

B.tramadol

C.Truvada

D.Tradjenta

B.tramadol

3
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The FDA requires the pharmacy to provide a pt info for oral contraceptives?

A. only with a new prescription

B. every time the prescription is filled

C. at the pharmacist’s discretion

D. only when refills are requested

B. every time the prescription is filled

4
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Which class of antibiotic is most likely to pose a risk of cross sensitivity for pt allergic to cephlosporins?

A. Macrolides

B. Sulfonamides

C. Fluroquinolones

D. Penicillins

D. Penicillins

5
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Which of the following situations requires a pharmacist’s intervention?

A. a prescriber wants to discuss therapeutic substitution of a non-formulary drug

B. A prescriber wants to check the cost of a prescription over the phone

C. A Prescriber wants to confirm which drug allergies a pharmacy has on file for a pt

D. A prescriber wants to know if a pharmacy carries a specific OTC drug

A. a prescriber wants to discuss therapeutic substitution of a non-formulary drug

6
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Which of the following is the name for a drug-drug interaction that causes decreased drug effects?

A. Antagonism

B. Addition

C. Synergism

D. Potentiation

A. Antagonism

7
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Gemfibrozil is indicated to treat elevated levels of:

A. hemoglobin

B.potassium

C.urokinase

D. triglycerides

D. triglycerides

8
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Fentanyl transdermal patches typically should be changed every

A. 24 hrs

B. 36 hrs

C. 72 hrs

D. 96 hrs

C. 72 hrs

9
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if a caustic material comes in contact with contact with the skin or eyes, the immediate response should be to:

A. lie down and cover the affected area

B. call 911 and wait until medical personnel arrive

C. wash the area throughly with an antibacterial soap and warm water

D. flush the affected area with large volumes of cold water

D. flush the affected area with large volumes of cold water

10
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In an acute care setting, which of the following is considered a high-alert category?

A. Anticoagluants

B. Anti-inflammatory drugs

C. Antibiotics

D. Analgesics

A. Anticoagluants

11
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Which of the following is the best suited to the treatment athlete’s foot

A. Neosporin

B. Cortaid

C. Desitin

D. Lotrimin AF

D. Lotrimin AF

12
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Which of the following is classified as a rapid acting insulin

A. Humulin N

B. Levemir

C. Humalog

D. Lantus

C. Humalog

13
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The Synera patch, which contains lidocaine and tetracaine, is indicated for

A. local anesthesia

B. dizziness and motion sickness

C. cardiac arrhythmia

D. estrogen replacement

A. local anesthesia

14
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Which of the following auxilary labels should be used when dispensing alendronate?

A. '“avoid sunlight while taking this medication”

B. "take with food or milk”

C. “Do not lie down for 30 minutes after taking this medication”

D. “may cause drowsiness. Use care when operating a car or dangerous machinery”

C. “Do not lie down for 30 minutes after taking this medication”

15
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The disposal of controlled substances fails under the jurisdiction of the:

A. DEA

B. FDA

C. manufacturer

D. distributor

A. DEA

16
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When a pt does not follow a dosing regimen, it is called a(n):

A. improper dose error

B. deterioted drug error

C. adherence error

D. wrong dosage form error

C. adherence error

17
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Which Class are you not allowed to refill?

A. Schedule I

B. Schedule II

C. Schedule II and I

D. Schedule III

B. Schedule II

18
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Upon receiving a prescription for a noncontrolled substance, the pharmacy technician should:

A. verify that all necessary information is legibly included on the on the prescription

B. ensure that the proper drug has been prescribed

C. provide the HIPAA Notice of Privacy Practices

D. check the pt’s refill history with the prescription monitoring program

A. verify that all necessary information is legibly included on the on the prescription

19
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Which of the following injections presents the highest potential for fatal overdose?

A. Pantoprazole

B. Cefazolin

C. Potassium Chloride

D. Ondansetron hydrochloride

C. Potassium Chloride

20
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Proper storage of a medication in a pharmacy is best determind by:

A. reading the package insert

B. asking the pharmacist

C. calling the FDA

D. consulting the Merck Index

A. reading the package insert

21
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Which of the following is most likely to cause constipation?

A. pyridoxine

B. Ascorbic acid

C. Calcium

D. Niacin

C. Calcium

22
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With regard to inpatient care, the utilization of electronic medication ordering reduces:

A. dispensing effciency

B. drug formulary options

C. adverse drug events

D. number of medications dispensed

C. adverse drug events

23
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Tinctures that contain contain high concentration of alcohol to dissolve the active ingredient may develop which of the following if diluted or mixed with aq systems:

A. Emulsion

B. Preciptation

C. Osmolarity

D. Trituration

B. Preciptation

24
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MedWatch allows healthcare professionals to:

A. find suitable alternatives during a medication shortage

B. provide voluntary adverse event reports

C. monitor a pt’s current medication regimen

D. perform drug utilization

B. provide voluntary adverse event reports

25
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Which of the following medications is a FDA-approved antiviral?

A. Tamiflu

B. Tikosyn

C. Cipro

D. Activase

A. Tamiflu

26
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A pt is picking up a prescription for aripiprazole. A Med guide must be given to the pt because the drug:

A. should be taken with food

B. may increase the risk of suicidal thoughts or actions

C. should only be taken as needed

D. may cause minimal side effects

B. may increase the risk of suicidal thoughts or actions

27
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A pt would develop a reddish-orange discoloration of the urine after taking:

A. pyridoxine

B. pseudophedrine

C.phenazopyride

D. penicillin

C.phenazopyride

28
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Pts taking isotretinoin should receive information regarding:

A. excessive vomiting and extrapyramidal side effects.

B. excessive constipation and possible impaction

C. serotonin syndrome and ototoxicity

D. becoming pregnant and depression or other mental illness

D. becoming pregnant and depression or other mental illness

29
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Which of the following organizations sponsors National Prescription Drug Take Back Day Events?

A. EPA

B. DEA
C. OBRA
D.OSHA

B. DEA

30
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When donning two pairs of gloves for the manipulation of hazardous drugs, best practice is to wear:

A. both pairs under the gown cuff

B. the first pair under and the second pair over the gown cuff

C. both pairs over the gown cuff

D. the first pair over and the second pair under the gown cuff

B. the first pair under and the second pair over the gown cuff

31
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A PharmacyTech experiences a sharps injury. Which of the following is the first action the technician should take?

A. Clean the area with anti-bacterial cream

B. Fill out the worker’s compensation paperwork

C. Wash needle sticks and cuts with soap and water

D. Notify infection control

C. Wash needle sticks and cuts with soap and water

32
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Which of the following statements is correct in regard to needle gauge?

A. The longer the needle, the higher the gauge number

B. The larger the needle diameter the lower the gauge number

C. The larger the needle the higher the gauge number

D. The longer the needle, the lower the guage number

B. The larger the needle diameter the lower the gauge number

33
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An unopened vial of Humalog may be stored at room temperature for how many days?

A.7

B.14

C.21

D.28

D.28

34
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According to Federal Law, if a bottle of Lyrica is transferred from one pharmacy to another, what is the minimum number of years that the transfer records must be maintained?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. $

B. 2

35
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Master Formulation Drug Records are used for which of the following reasons?

A. to evaluate staff performance

B. To prevent drug diversion

C. To eliminate pt profiles

D. To ensure quality control

D. To ensure quality control

36
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A pharm tech enters an order for Janumet XR 50/1000 as Janumet 50/1000. What error was made?

A. Transcription

B. Missed Dose

C. Substitution

D. Dosing

A. Transcription

37
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When prescription writing the use of seros is reccomended?

A. using whole numbers

B. to clarify the pt’s age

C. to prevent underdosing

D. before a decimal point

D. before a decimal point

38
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Once reconstituted, amoxicillin is stable for a minimum of how many days?

A.7

B.10

C.14

D.21

C.14

39
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According to OSHA regulations a pharmtech who could experience occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens must receive training at least?

A.quarterly

B.biannualy

C.annualy

D.biennially

C.annualy

40
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DEA Form 222

orders of controlled substances

41
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DEA Form 41

reporting for destruction of outdated/damaged controlled substances

42
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DEA Form 106

reporting theft of controlled substances

43
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antitussive

suppresses cough

44
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antipyretic

treats fever

45
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analgesic

treats pain

46
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anticoagulant

blood thinners (prevents the formation of blood clots)

47
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Schedule l

no medical use (illlegal drugs)

48
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Schedule ll

high potential for abuse and dependence (narcotic pain meds, stimulants for ADHD), no refills

49
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Schedule lll

moderate to low dependence, less abuse, 5 refills in 6 months, testosterone products

50
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Schedule IV

low dependence and less abuse (sleep/benzodiazepines for anxiety)

51
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Unit dose package must contain

drug name and strength, expiration date, lot number

52
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diuretics

decrease fluid/swelling

53
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antihypertensives

blood pressure

54
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DEA Form 222a

to order more 222 forms

55
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DEA 224

pharmacy DEA registration

56
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DEA 224a

pharmacy DEA license renewal

57
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H1 antagonists are?

antihistamines

58
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NTI

Narrow Therapeutic Index- small differences can lead to very significant undesired effect

59
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co-payment

the set amount the pt has to pay after the insurance payed their half

60
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anticonvulsant

drugs used to treat/prevent seizures

61
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nitroglycerin

vasodilator for chest pain, NTG

62
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Orange book

THe book with the therapeutic equivalence code

63
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AA

ingredients and dosage forms presenting neither actual nor potential bioequivalence problems

64
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AB

actual or potential bioequivalence problems have been resolved in vivo

65
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Drug-Drug interaction

interactions that involve prescription or OTC drugs that alter the action of another drug

66
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Addition

The combined effects of 2 drugs = to when the drugs are taken alone

67
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Antagonism

one drug work against another drug

68
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Potentiation

One drug increases the effect of the other drug, the sum of the two drugs is greater than the sum of each drug alone

69
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Synergism

The joint action of drugs in which their combined effect is more intense that the sum of both drugs

70
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USP 795 non-aq

earliest expiration date or 6 months eariler

71
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USP 795 Water oral formulations

no later than 30 days expiration

72
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Omission error

failure to admin an ordered dose before the next scheduled dose

73
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Wrong time error

admin of a medication outside a predetermined time interval/scheduled admin time

74
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Wrong dosage form

admin to the pt of a drug product in different dosage form than the one prescribed

75
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compliance error

inappropriate pt behavior regarding adhering to a prescribed medication regimen

76
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FAERS

FDA adverse drug effects reporting system

77
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VAERS

Vaccine Adverse event reporting system, (under FDA)

78
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Root-Cause analysis

by the TJC for continuous quality improvement

79
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DAW 0

no product selection indicated

80
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DAW 1

sub allowed by provider

81
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DAW 2

sub allowed, pt requested

82
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DAW 4

Sub allowed, generic not in stock