VIOLET - DISP

D. All of these - nonadherence

Which of the following factors are associated with a patient's non adherence to the prescribed therapeutic regimen?

A. How do often the medication is taken

B. The cost of the medication

C. The duration of therapy

D. All of these

E. None of these

C. Rx symbol

The part of the prescription that is understood to mean "thou take" or "you take"

A. Medications prescribed

B. Signatura

C. Rx symbol

D. Superscription

A. Medications prescribed

The part of the prescription that is also known as the inscription

A. Medications prescribed

B. Signatura

C. Rx symbol

D. Superscription

E. Subscription

E. Subscription

The part of the prescription that refers to the

dispensing directions to the pharmacist

A. Medications prescribed

B. Signatura

C. Rx symbol

D. Superscription

E. Subscription

B. M ft caps dtd #50

Which of the following is a dispensing direction for the pharmacist?

A. Gtt i-ii ou BID

B. M ft caps dtd #50

C. Inh 2 puffs PO q 4 to 6 h prn difficulty

breathing

D. Ii tabs PO q 4 h

E. 50 units SC q AM

B. Wide-mouth bottles

The packaging suitable for dispensing bulk powders

A. Round vials

B. Wide-mouth bottles

C. Dropper bottles

D. Ointment jars

E. Collapsible tubes

E. I, II and III - auxillary labels

Which is TRUE regarding auxillary labells?

I. Emphasizes important aspects of

the dispensed medication

II. Provides cautionary statements from

the pharmacist regarding the

dispensed medication

III. Are available in different colors to

give them prominence once

attached to the medication container

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III

E. I, II and III

An example of an auxillary label

I. Shake well

II. Take with food

III. May cause drowsiness

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III - Shake well, Take with food, ay cause drowsiness

E. I, II and III

A sample of dispensing error

I. Providing the incorrect medication

II. Providing the incorrect dosage strength

and dosage form

III. Undetected interactions with other

medications

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III - incorrect medication, incorrect dosage strength

and dosage form, Undetected interactions

E. I, II and III

A risk factor for adverse drug reactions

I. Patient age

II. Concurrent medications taken

III. Ethnicity and genetics

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III - age, Concurrent medications, Ethnicity and genetics

E. I, II and III

Factor contributing to the occurrence of a drug interaction

I. Multiple pharmacological effects

II. Multiple prescribers

III. Use of over the counter products

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III - Multiple pharmacological effects, Multiple prescribers, Use of over the counter products

C. I and II only

Which of the following statements is TRUE

regarding patient variables affecting drug

response?

I. Taking sedatives and alcoholic beverages together could result to an excessive depressive response.

II. Food may often affect the rate of extent of absorption of a drug from the GIT

III. Renal and hepatic function do not affect the patient's response to a medication

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only - depressive response, Food affects the rate of extent of absorption

D. II and III

E. I, II and III

C. Advice the patient to take the antacid two hours after taking the ketoconazole.

How could you counsel a patient who is

prescribed a ketoconazole and an antacid, knowing that the ketoconazole requires an acidic environment to achieve dissolution after oral administration?

A. Advice the patient that both drugs could be taken together.

B. Advice the patient to go back to the

doctor and have the ketoconazole replaced with another drug.

C. Advice the patient to take the antacid

two hours after taking the ketoconazole.

D. Advice the patient to go to the doctor

and have both drugs changed.

E. Advice the patient to stop taking both

medications

A. I only

A patient is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a respiratory tract infection. What would you advice the patient?

I. Do not take with milk and or dairy products

II. Take aluminum or magnesium containing antacids when stomach upset occurs

III. The patient may continue taking iron supplements even while on the medication

A. I only - Do not take with milk and or dairy products

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III

B. Complexation

The mechanism of drug interaction between tetracycline and milk, tetracycline and aluminum or magnesium-containing antacids

A. Alteration of gastric emptying rate

B. Complexation

C. Alteration of pH

D. Alteration of GI absorption

E. Alteration of distribution

A. Alteration of GI flora

The mechanism of drug interaction between oral contraceptives and antibiotics

A. Alteration of GI flora

B. Alteration of pH

C. Complexation and adsorption

D. Alteration of distribution

E. Alteration of metabolism in the GIT

A. Displacement form protein binding site

The mechanism of drug interaction between phenytoin aand valproic acid

A. Displacement form protein binding site

B. Drug-food interaction

C. Alteration of GI flora

D. Stimulation of metabolism

E. Alteration of active transport

C. I and II only

Phenobarbital causes enzyme induction hence, increases the rate of metabolism of warfarin when taken together. As the pharmacist, what would be your recommendation to the prescriber?

I. Increase the dose of warfarin while on phenobarbital then lower it down once phenobarbital is discontinued

II. Consider an alternative to phenobarbital such as benzodiazepines which are not likely to interact with warfarin

III. There is no need to make any recommendation to the prescriber

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only - Increase the dose of warfarin, alternative to phenobarbital

D. II and III

E. I, II and III

D. Penicillin

The following are examples of a drug with a narrow therapeutic index, EXCEPT

A. Theophylline

B. Warfarin

C. Digoxin

D. Penicillin

E. Lithium

C. Tachycardia from salbutamol

An example of a type A adverse drug reaction

A. Carcinogenesis

B. Anaphylaxis from penicillins

C. Tachycardia from salbutamol

D. Teratogenesis

E. None of these

E. I, II and III

As a pharmacist, what would you advice your patient when dispensing ophthalmic solutions:

I. Never allow the tip of the dropper to

touch any surface

II. Never rinse the dropper

III. Never use eyedrops that have

changed color

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III - Don’t touch surface, Don’t rinse, No color change

C. I and II

During medication review, the patient reveals that he is an avid fan of grapefruit and takes his medications, including verapamil, with grapefruit juice. Which of the following is TRUE regarding verapamil and grapefruit juice?

I. Avoid taking medications with grapefruit juice

II. The combination may inhibit the metabolism of the drug (verapamil) resulting to increased pharmacologic effects and increased risk of adrs

III.The combination may increase the metabolism of the drug (verapamil) resulting to decreased pharmacologic activity

A. Only I

B. Only III

C. I and II

D. II and III

E. I, II and III

B. Atorvastatin 80 mg hs

A patient complains of extreme muscle weakness and myopathy. Which of his medications may have caused this?

A. Metformin 500 mg BID

B. Atorvastatin 80 mg hs

C. Losartan 50 mg qam

D. Multivitamins

E. Paracetamol 500 mg Q 4 to 6 h prn

E. Amlodipine besylate

A patient with hypertension complains of swelling in her feet and mentions that this started when she was given her new antihypertensive drug. Which of the following medications may have caused this?

A. Metoprolol

B. Hydrochlorothiazide

C. Valsartan

D. Furosemide

E. Amlodipine besylate

A. Ferrous sulphate

A patient with infection was given levofloxacin 500 mg once daily for 10 days. The patient noticed no improvement of symptoms on the seventh day of therapy. A review of the patient's medication profile reveals that he is taking which of the following drugs that may have interacted with the antibiotic?

A. Ferrous sulphate

B. Vitamin C

C. Guaifenesin

D. Ibuprofen

E. Paracetamol

A. Enalapril

A patient comes to the pharmacy asking for a recommendation for a cough medicine because of persistent cough. A review of the patient's medication profile revealed that one of his medications is causing this symptom. What drug is this?

A. Enalapril

B. Losartan

C. Metoprolol

D. Hydrochlorothiazide

E. Furosemide

A. Prazosin

Which of the following drugs may cause postural hypertension and reflex tachycardia once the drug is initiated and when increasing doses?

A. Prazosin

B. Amlodipine

C. Labetalol

D. Propranolol

E. Furosemide

B. Beta blockers

A patient's blood pressure has been well controlled for years using a thiazide diuretic. But lately there has been an increase in his diastolic blood pressure warranting an additional blood pressure medication. However, he noticed that lately he has been experiencing erectile dysfunction. Which of the following medication classes may have caused this?

A. Thiazide diuretics

B. Beta blockers

C. ACE inhibitors

D. ARBS

E. Loop diuretics

E. Hypertrichosis

A common side effect of minoxidil

A. Persistent dry cough

B. Peripheral edema

C. Reflex tachycardia

D. Drowsiness

E. Hypertrichosis

C. Losartan

A patient's routine lab results showed an increase in her serum potassium levels. Her physician informed her that her hypertensive medication which one initiated three months ago may have caused this increase. Which of the following is her medication?

A. Furosemide

B. Hydrochlorothiazide

C. Losartan

D. Nifedipine

E. Chlorthalidone

B. Hydrochlorothiazide

A patient who is hypertensive and has history of gout was placed by his physician on a diuretic. He develops an attack of gout a few weeks after starting therapy. Which of the following diuretics was he taking?

A. Spironolactone

B. Hydrochlorothiazide

C. Triamterene

D. Urea

E. Chlorthalidone

B. Hydralazine

This antihypertensive drug is associated with drug-induced lupus that resolves upon cessation of the drug.

A. Digoxin

B. Hydralazine

C. Minoxidil

D. Labetalol

E. Valsartan

A. Disopyramide

A patient on an antiarrhythmic medication complains of dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary hesitancy. Which of the following medications is the patient taking?

A. Disopyramide

B. Flecainide

C. Lidocaine

D. Amiodarone

E. Sotalol

A. Quinidine

This antiarrythmic may induced the symptoms of cinchonism.

A. Quinidine

B. Flecainide

C. Procainamide

D. Mexiletene

E. Sotalol

C. Dyspepsia

A common adverse effect of mexiletine

A. Bleeding

B. Anorexia

C. Dyspepsia

D. Somnolence

E. Shortness of breath

A. Propafenone

An antiarrythmic that should be avoided by patient's with asthma

A. Propafenone

B. Flecainide

C. Quinidine

D. Sotalol

E. Mexiletine

E. Bleeding

The following are adverse effects of amiodarone EXCEPT

A. Pulmonary fibrosis

B. Neuropathy

C. Blue-gray skin discoloration

D. Hypo- or hyperthyroidism

E. Bleeding

B. III only

A patient comes inti the pharmacy and hands you, the pharmacist, a prescription for sildenafil. You recall that you just counselled this same patient two weeks ago regarding the use of sublingual nitroglycerin. What would be the result of the interaction between the two medications?

I. Potentiate the effects of sildenafil

II. Dangerous hypertension

III. Dangerous hypotension

A. I only

B. III only - Dangerous hypotension

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III

A. Increased bleeding

The interaction between aspirin and ketorolac would result to which of the following:

A. Increased bleeding

B. Dry mouth

C. Blurred vision

D. All of these

E. None of these

B. III only

A patient who is on probenecid for his gout reports that he has been experiencing attacks of his gout when he was on daily aspirin therapy. This is due to which of the following:

I. Increased metabolism of aspirin

II. Increased vasodilation

III. Decreased uricosuric effect of probenecid

A. I only

B. III only - Decreased uricosuric effect of probenecid

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III

D. II and III - clopidogrel

A patient is on clopidogrel for her arrythmia and she came to you to bring in a prescription for omeprazole from her doctor. What can you say about this combination?

I. The two drugs could be given together

II. The combination is not recommended

III. Patients on clopidogrel should avoid omeprazole

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III - combination not recommended, clopidogrel; avoid omeprazole

E. I, II and III

D. II and III

A treatment for excessive bleeding due to heparin therapy

I. Vitamin K

II. Discontinue heparin

III. Protamine sulfate

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III - Discontinue heparin, Protamine sulfate

E. I, II and III

A. Osteoporosis

A consequence of long tern heparin therapy

A. Osteoporosis

B. Persistent cough

C. Obesity

D. Weight gain

E. Hair loss

D. II and III

A patient brought in a new prescription for fluconazole. A review of her medication profile revealed that she is on warfarin therapy. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the combination of these two drugs?

I. The two drugs are safe to be taken together

II. Fluconazole inhibits the metabolism of warfarin

III. The combination of these two medications could lead to serious bleeding

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III - Fluconazole inhibits the metabolism of warfarin, serious bleeding

E. I, II and III

B. Lipitor 80 mg daily

A patient complains of weakness and muscle achiness that will not resolve. He said that his symptoms are interfering with his daily activities for he feels too weak even to get out of bed. You reviewed his medication profile and found out that one of his medications may be the cause of his condition. Which of the following medications may have caused these symptoms?

A. Losartan 50 mg daily

B. Lipitor 80 mg daily

C. Ibuprofen 200 mg q 4 to 6 h prn

pain

D. Multivitamins 1 cap daily

E. Metformin 500 mg daily

D. Anorexia

The following are adverse effects of niacin, EXCEPT

A. Intense cutaneous flush

B. Pruritus

C. Hepatotoxicity

D. Anorexia

E. Abdominal pain

C. I and II

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding simvastatin and gemfibrozil?

I. The use of gemfibrozil is contraindicated with simvastatin

II. The combination increases the risk for myopathy and rhabdomyolysis

III. There is no interaction between the two medications

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II

D. II and III

E. I, II and III

E. I, II and III

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding bile acid sequestrants?

I. Most common side effects include constipation, nausea, and flatulence

II. They may impair the absorption of Vitamin A,D,E,K

III. They may impair the absorption of many drugs, such as warfarin, digoxin, etc.

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III - side effects, impair absorption of vits. & drugs

B. Take warfarin 1 to 2 hours before or 4 to 6 hours after the bile acid-binding resin

A counselling point when dispensing colesevelam to a patient on a warfarin therapy.

A. Stop taking warfarin for his interacts with colesevelam

B. Take warfarin 1 to 2 hours before or 4 to 6 hours after the bile acid-binding resin

C. Switch colesevelam to cholestyramine

D. Take both drugs at the same time with food

E. Take both drugs at the same time on an empty stomach

D. Patients with renal insufficiency

Which of the following patient groups would be more likely to experience the adverse effect of HMG coa reductase inhibitors (myopathy and rhabdomyolysis)?

A. Patients with on blood thinners

B. Patients with heperuriemia

C. Patients with hypertension

D. Patients with renal insufficiency

E. Patients with hypertriglyceridemia

B. Hypoglycemia

The most serious and common adverse reaction to insulin.

A. Hypotension

B. Hypoglycemia

C. Hypertension

D. Hyperglycemia

E. Hypercholesterolemia

B. Rotate injection sites

How can lipodystrophy, an adverse effect of insulin use, be minimized?

A. Switch to an oral medication

B. Rotate injection sites

C. Inject insulin into the muscle

D. Inject once daily only

E. Use insulin pens

E. I, II and III

Major adverse effects of sulfonylureas

I. Weight gain

II. Hypoglycemia

III. Hyperinsulinemia

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III - Weight gain, Hypoglycemia, Hyperinsulinemia

B. Lactic acidosis

A rare, but serious side effect of metformin

A. Candidiasis

B. Lactic acidosis

C. Pancreatitis

D. Urinary tract infection

E. Heart failure

E. All of these

Adverse effect associated with estrogen therapy

A. Breast tenderness

B. Nausea

C. Thromboembolism

D. Breast cancer

E. All of these

B. Liraglutide

Which of the following antidiabetic drugs is associated with a risk of pancreatitis?

A. Metformin

B. Liraglutide

C. Glimepiride

D. Insulin

E. Nateglinide

D. The patient may experience bleeding

A patient on warfarin therapy brought in a prescription for naproxen. Upon consult, you were informed that he did not tell his prescriber that he is taking warfarin. You recall that warfarin is 97% protein bound and naproxen is 99% protein bound. What would happen if this patient takes naproxen?

A. The patient will benefit from this combination

B. The pain and inflammation will be treated

C. There is no interaction between the two drugs

D. The patient may experience bleeding

E. The patient would have blood clots

D. A and B

This should be checked by the pharmacist when dispensing suppositories

A. Excessive softening

B. Oil stains on packaging

C. Presence of precipitate

D. A and B

E. B and C

A. Persistent burning sensation

The following are common side effects encountered when using ophthalmic preparations EXCEPT

A. Persistent burning sensation

B. Tearing

C. Decreased vision

D. Foreign body sensation

E. Margin crusting

D. II and III - finasteride

A patient brought in a prescription for finasteride. Your pharmacy technician assigned at the filling station is in her 1st trimester of pregnancy. What precautions should be observed?

I. Let her fill the prescription

II. Tell her not to fill the prescription and have somebody else fill it.

III. Remind her not to touch the medication

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III

E. All of these

Drug interaction includes the following

A. Drug-drug interaction

B. Drug-lab test interaction

C. Drug-food interaction

D. Drug-herb interaction

E. All of these

B. Pharmacogenetic

The type of interaction that occurs when the pharmacokinetic disposition of the drug is altered by genetic polymorphism in affecting processes

A. Pharmacokinetic

B. Pharmacogenetic

C. Biopharmaceutical

D. Pharmacodynamic

E. Pharmaceutical

C. I and II only

A contraindication for the use of ergotamine and dihydroergotamine

I. Angina

II. Peripheral vascular disease

III. Diabetes

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only - Angina, Peripheral vascular disease

D. II and III

E. I, II and III

A. Methicillin

An antimicrobial agent that have the potential to cause interstitial nephritis

A. Methicillin

B. Ceftriaxone

C. Naproxen

D. Cephalexin

E. Sertraline

B. Vancomycin

Red man syndrome is an adverse event associated with which medication

A. Erythromycin

B. Vancomycin

C. Ciprofloxacin

D. Moxifloxacin

E. Daptomycin

B. Rhabdomyolysis

An adverse effect associated with the use of daptomycin

A. Red man syndrome

B. Rhabdomyolysis

C. Bleeding

D. Flushing

E. Ototoxicity

A. Tetracycline

Phototoxicity is associated with the use of which antibiotic

A. Tetracycline

B. Gentamicin

C. Erythromycin

D. Amoxicillin

E. Neomycin

C. I and II only

A patient maintained on warfarin was given a prescription for clarithromycin for an upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

I. The prescriber needs to be informed that the patient is on warfarin therapy

II. Clarithromycin inhibits the metabolism of warfarin which could lead to bleeding

III. There is no need to contact the prescribers, it is safe to take both medications together

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III

C. Deposits into the bones and teeth

A contraindication for the use of tetracycline is children below 8 years old because tetracyclines

A. Crosses the blood brain barrier

B. Do not cross into the cerebrospinal fluid

C. Deposits into the bones and teeth

D. Do not cross into the cerebrospinal fluid

E. Can cause blood disorders

D. Rifampin

A drug that colors body fluids

A. Tetracycline

B. Lexofloxacin

C. Bacitracin

D. Rifampin

E. Neomycin

E. I, II and III

Rifampin and oral contraceptives

I. Reduced effect of oral contraceptives

II. Increased metabolism of oral contraceptives

III.Need for back-up contraception while

on rifampicin

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III

D. Ethambutol

A drug that causes optic neuritis with blurred vision, and also red-green color blindness

A. Pyrazinamide

B. Streptomycin

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

E. Capreomycin

D. II and III

The interaction between simvastatin and itraconazole would result to:

I. Treatment failure of itraconazole

II. Increased exposure to simvastatin

III. Increased risk of rhabdomyolysis

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III

A. This could result to excessive sedation

The co-administration of triazolam and any protease inhibitor (ritonavir, saquinavir, indinavir, etc.) is contraindicated because

A. This could result to excessive sedation

B. This could lead to treatment failure of the protease inhibitor

C. There is no interaction between the two drugs

D. Both drugs are expensive

E. None of these

E. I, II and III

Paclitaxel is associated with serious hypersensitivity reactions. Premedications necessary for a patient who would be administered paclitaxel include:

I. Dexamethasone

II. Ranitidine

III. Diphenhydramine

A.I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III

B. Cyclophosphamide

The toxicity associated with this agent is interstitial nephritis

A. Bleomycin

B. Cyclophosphamide

C. Cytarabine

D. Cisplatin

E. Doxorubicin

B. Precipitant drug

The drug, chemical or food element causing the interaction.

A. Object drug

B. Precipitant drug

C. Target drug

D. Precipitated drug

E. None of these

A. Alteration of gastric pH

Mechanism of interaction between an antacid and an enteric-coated tablet

A. Alteration of gastric pH

B. Increased GI motility

C. Alteration of intestinal flora

D. Complexation

E. Decreased GI motility

C. Alteration of intestinal flora

Mechanism of interaction between digoxin and antibiotics resulting an increase in digoxin levels

A. Alteration of gastric pH

B. Increased in GI motility

C. Alteration of intestinal flora

D. Complexation

E. Decreased GI motility

E. A,B, and C

Which of the following herbal preparations increase bleeding in patients on warfarin therapy?

A. Garlic

B. Ginger

C. Feverfew

D. A and B

E. A,B, and C

A. Failure of therapy of calcium channel blockers

Interaction between St. John's wort and calcium channel blockers result to:

A. Failure of therapy of calcium channel blockers

B. Failure of therapy of St. John's wort

C. There is no interaction between St. John's wort and calcium channel blockers

D. Elevated levels of St. John's wort

E. Elevated levels of calcium channel blockers

D. Hypotension

A patient asks you for a recommendation for an over the counter product for hot flashes due to menopause. Black cohosh is a common herbal supplement indicated for hot flashes. However further interview revealed that she has maintenance medications for hypertension. What would happen if she takes black cohosh together with her antihypertensive?

A. Hypertension

B. No interaction

C. Treatment failure of black cohosh

D. Hypotension

E. None of these

E. I, II and III

Factors that increase the chances of a drug interaction to occur

I. Multiple prescribers

II. Multiple drug therapy

III. Geriatric therapy

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III

C. I and II

The interaction between probenecid and penicillin

I. Is beneficial

II. Inhibits renal tubular secretion of penicillin

III. Decreases the plasma half-life of penicillin

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II

D. II and III

E. I, II and III

E. All of these

A type of chemical incompatibility

A. Complexation

B. Reduction

C. Photolysis

D. Oxidation

E. All of these

E. All of these

Factors affecting IV compatibility

A. Ph

B. Order of mixing

C. Length of time in solution

D. Temperature

E. All of these

E. All of these

Therapeutic hazards for IV preparations

A. Drug instability

B. Labelling errors

C. Preservative and solubilizing agent toxicity

D. Incompatibility

E. All of these

A. I only

The interaction between ginkgo biloba and warfarin could result to

I. Increased risk of bleeding

II. Decreased risk of bleeding

III.Antagonism

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III

A. Increased metabolism of phenobarbital

The mechanism for the interaction between ethanol and phenobarbital

A. Increased metabolism of phenobarbital

B. Decreased metabolism of phenobarbital

C. Decreased absorption of phenobarbital

D. Decreased metabolism of ethanol

E. None of these

B. Diabetic patients

False-positive urine ketone tests may result in patients taking valproic acid. This is significant for this type of patients when using urine tests

A. Hypertensive patients

B. Diabetic patients

C. Seizure patients

D. Asthma patients

E. All of these

B. Increased urination

The following are adverse effects of anticholinergic drugs, EXCEPT

A. Dry mouth

B. Increased urination

C. Constipation

D. Urinary retention

E. Decreased sweating

E. I, II and III

These agents potentiate the side effects of anticholinergics

I. Antihistamines

II. Antidepressants

III.Phenothiazines

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and II only

D. II and III

E. I, II and III

A. Levodopa

Taking which of the following drugs could result to a false-positive Coombs test

A. Levodopa

B. Amantadine

C. Bromocriptine

D. Selegiline

E. Phenothiazine

A. Hypertensive crisis

The combination of levodopa and phenelzine is avoided because it could result to

A. Hypertensive crisis

B. Urinary incontinence

C nausea and vomiting

D. Hypotension

E. Profuse sweating

D. A and B

Pyridoxine should be taken with caution in Parkinson's patients on levodopa because

A. Pyridoxine increases the peripheral

metabolism of levodopa

B. The effect of levodopa will be decreased

C. The effect of levodopa will be increases

D. A and B

E. B and C

D. A and B

A patient was prescribed amantadine. A review of his medication profile revealed that he has hydrochlorothiazide-triamterene tablets for the management of his hypertension. What could be the result if these are given together?

A. There would be an increase in the plasma concentration of amantadine

B. There will be a decrease in the urinary

excretion of amantadine

C. There will be no interaction between the two medications

D. A and B

E. B and C

A. Acute dystonia

An extrapyramidal side effect that describes sudden muscle spasms that primarily occur in the eye, neck, face, and throat muscles.

A. Acute dystonia

B. Tardive dyskinesia

C. Akathisia

D. Pseudoparkinsonism

E. None of these

C. Akathisia

An extra pyramidal side effect that is defined as the inability to sit still and as being functionally motor restless.

A. Acute dystonia

B. Tardive dyskinesia

C. Akathisia

D. Pseudoparkinsonism

E. None of these

E. All of these

Which of the following is considered most sedating antipsychotics?

A. Chlorpromazine

B. Clozapine

C. Olanzapine

D. Thioridazine

E. All of these

D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

An uncommon but potentially fatal adverse effect of antipsychotics, characterized by fever, severe rigidity, altered mental status, unstable blood pressure, tachycardia, incontinence, elevated creatinine kinase, and increased WBC count.

A. Stevens-Johnsons syndrome

B. Tardive dyskinesia

C. Serotonin syndrome

D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

E. None of these