Digestive GR (copy)

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The watery mixture of partially digested food produced in the stomach is called

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1

The watery mixture of partially digested food produced in the stomach is called

A) dentin

B) mucin

C) chyme

D) segmentation

E) bolus

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2

Essential amino acids are

A) not found in a complete protein

B) not used for the production of proteins

C) used only for the production of hormones

D) required for the production of steroids

E) required in the diet because the human body cannot make them

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3

Which one of the following types of diets is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?

A) high-protein diet

B) diet that includes complex carbohydrates

C) diet low in refined sugars

D) diet that includes unsaturated fats

E) diet high in saturated fat and cholesterol

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4

Which one of the following results in a higher basal metabolic rate?

A) hypothyroidism

B) fasting

C) increasing age

D) crash diet

E) stress (?)

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5

The process by which undigested material is removed from the gastrointestinal tract is (removal of waste within the the body)

A) mechanical processing

B) absorption

C) secretion

D) elimination

E) urination

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6

The pancreatic ducts connect to the small intestine at the

A) jejunum

B) duodenum

C) ileum

D) pyloric valve

E) cecum

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7

Bile assists in the chemical digestion of triglycerides by

A) hydrolyzing them to glycerol and fatty acids

B) assisting with the active transport of triglycerides into the blood

C) forming chylomicrons

D) emulsifying large fat droplets into tiny ones, providing more surface area for enzymes

E) breaking peptide bonds and hydrolyzing them to amino acids

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8

Water-soluble vitamins differ from fat-soluble vitamins in that water-soluble vitamins are

A) less readily absorbed from the GI tract

B) not excreted in urine

C) rarely required as daily supplements to the diet

D) stored in fat tissue

E) stored for a brief period of time

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9

A disorder of the nervous system in which the individual eats and then deliberately vomits is

A) lactose intolerance

B) anorexia nervosa

C) bulimia

D) overnutrition

E) diverticulosis

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10

The salivary glands include

A) sublingual, parotid, and submandibular glands

B) the parotid and pancreatic glands

C) sublingual, submandibular, and pancreatic glands

D) subesophageal, pancreatic, and sublingual glands

E) parotid, submandibular, and subesophageal glands

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11

Bile is produced by the ________ and stored in the ________.

A) stomach, small intestine

B) gall bladder, liver

C) small intestine, gall bladder

D) liver, gall bladder

E) small intestine, liver

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12
<p>Once a bolus of food has been formed in the mouth, it is passed by the tongue and jaws to the</p>

Once a bolus of food has been formed in the mouth, it is passed by the tongue and jaws to the

A) pharynx

B) stomach

C) nasal passageway

D) esophagus

E) small intestine

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13

All of the following are involved in the digestion of proteins EXCEPT which one?

A) carboxypeptidase

B) chymotrypsin

C) trypsin

D) amylase

E) pepsin

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14

The digestion of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates is completed in the

A) large intestine

B) liver

C) stomach

D) small intestine

E) pancreas

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15

An eating disorder in which someone diets excessively or deliberately stops eating altogether is called

A) gastric nervosa

B) anorexia

C) hepatitis C

D) bulimia

E) diverticulosis

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16

Which major digestive process involves nutrient molecules passing across the mucosal layer of the GI tract into the blood or lymph?

A) digestion

B) absorption

C) secretion

D) elimination

E) mechanical processing and movement

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17

The pancreas aids in the chemical digestion of food by

A) producing chylomicrons

B) producing and releasing gastrin into the stomach

C) producing mucin that lubricates the small intestine

D) mechanically digesting the chyme as it leaves the stomach

E) releasing digestive enzymes and bicarbonate ions into the duodenum

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18
  1. As chyme leaves the stomach, the acidic nature of the partially digested food stimulates the duodenum to release the hormone

A) CCK

B) ADH

C) secretin (?)

D) gastrin

E) mucin

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19

Saturated fats differ from unsaturated fats in that saturated fats

A) are made up of glycerol and fatty acids

B) are liquid at room temperature

C) store energy

D) are found only in plant products

E) have two hydrogen atoms for every carbon atom in their fatty acid tails

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20

Mucin in saliva functions to

A) aid in food particles sticking together

B) remove food particles from teeth

C) lower the pH of the saliva

D) partially digest carbohydrates in the mouth

E) raise the pH of the saliva

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21
<p>Which one of the following labeled parts of the tooth is made up of a nonliving compound of phosphate and calcium?</p>

Which one of the following labeled parts of the tooth is made up of a nonliving compound of phosphate and calcium?

A) C

B) B

C) E

D) A

E) D

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22

In the small intestine, amino acids and monosaccharaides are moved into the mucosal cells by the process of

A) active transport

B) facilitated diffusion

C) exocytosis

D) endocytosis

E) diffusion

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23

The layer of the GI tract wall that is responsible for motility is the

A) submucosa

B) mucosa

C) serosa

D) glandular

E) muscularis

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24

Elimination of undigested food material from the large intestine is controlled by

A) trypsin

B) the defecation reflex

C) the appendix

D) secretin

E) CCK

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25

Which one of the following might result if the lower esophageal sphincter malfunctions?

A) stomach cancer

B) duodenal ulcer

C) gluten intolerance

D) gastric ulcer

E) acid reflux

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26

Gastric juice in the stomach is composed of

A) HCL, fluids secreted from gastric glands, pepsinogen

B) fluids from gastric glands only

C) HCL, secretin, saliva

D) pepsinogen, secretin, serosa

E) chyme, HCL, mucus

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27

Pepsin is a digestive enzyme that specifically targets

A) steroids

B) protein

C) fatty acids

D) glycogen

E) starch

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28

The process by which food is propelled through the digestive tract by alternating contraction and relaxation of smooth muscle is

A) absorption

B) chemical digestion

C) peristalsis

D) elimination

E) secretion

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29

Which one of the following would likely develop in a person with celiac disease who continues to consume gluten?

A) acid reflux

B) gastric ulcer

C) malabsorption

D) duodenal ulcer

E) colon polyps

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30

Which of the following meals or snacks is likely to cause the secretion of gastrin and cholecystokinin?

A) crackers with strawberry jam

B) bacon cheeseburger and fries

C) vegetable stir fry with rice

D) orange juice and toast with black coffee

E) pretzels and chips

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31

Nutrient-rich blood moves from the small intestine to the liver via

A) lacteal vessels

B) arterial flow from GI tract to the liver

C) the hepatic portal system

D) the pancreatic duct

E) the pulmonary circuit

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32

Which one of the following components of saliva has antibacterial properties?

A) sodium bicarbonate

B) lysozyme

C) amylase

D) HCl

E) mucin

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33
<p>The ________ is the region of a tooth that lies below the gum line, and the entire tooth sits in a socket in the jawbone, lined with ________, indicated by label ________.</p>

The ________ is the region of a tooth that lies below the gum line, and the entire tooth sits in a socket in the jawbone, lined with ________, indicated by label ________.

A) crown, gingiva, D

B) pulp cavity, root canal, A

C) bone, periodontal membrane, C

D) root, periodontal membrane, E

E) pulp cavity, root canal, D

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34

During swallowing

A) salivary secretions stop

B) the hard palate rises to close the nasal passages

C) the epiglottis bends to close the trachea

D) smooth muscle in the esophagus contracts slightly

E) the tongue flattens to the bottom of the mouth

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35

Which one of the following is considered an accessory digestive organ?

A) pancreas

B) esophagus

C) large intestine

D) small intestine

E) stomach

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36

The appendix is considered one of the lesser accessory organs of the digestive tract.

True/False

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37

Gingivitis occurs when tooth decay causes inflammation of the enamel and pulp of the tooth.

True/False

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38

Segmentation is the primary means of mechanical breakdown of food in the digestive tract.

True/False

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39

The condition known as acid reflux occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter malfunctions, allowing stomach fluid into the esophagus.

True/False

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40

Bile is an important enzyme that digests lipids.

True/False

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41

Mucin is a major component of saliva, which lubricates the teeth and causes food to stick together during swallowing.

True/False

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42

"MyPlate" provides a personalized approach to assist an individual in developing a successful nutrition and exercise plan.

True/False

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43

Diets that include complex carbohydrates instead of simple carbohydrates are recommended because sugar is released more slowly into the body.

True/False

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44

Which of the following leukocytes is most likely to be directly involved in the destruction of flukes (a parasitic flatworm)?

A) eosinophils

B) natural killer cells

C) basophils

D) neutrophils E) B lymphocytes

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45

Which one of the following is TRUE regarding lymph nodes?

A) Lymph flows from the lymph vessels to the urinary system.

B) They filter lymph fluid, trapping microorganisms and abnormal cells.

C) Macrophages but not lymphocytes can be found within lymph nodes.

D) They remove microorganisms and abnormal cells from the lymph and return them to blood circulation.

E) They are located only in the digestive tract and neck.

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46

Antibiotics are most likely to be effective in the treatment of infections caused by

A) prions B) lice and ticks C) viruses D) parasitic worms E) bacteria

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47

Which of the following classes of antibodies activates the inflammatory response by causing the release of histamine?

A) IgM B) IgA C) IgD D) IgG E) IgE

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48

Which one of the following diseases is caused by a virus?

A) tuberculosis B) rabies C) Lyme disease D) toxic shock syndrome E) syphilis

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49

All of the following are ways in which a mild fever participates as part of the body's second line of defense and aids the body EXCEPT

A) increasing the rate of tissue repair B) creating an inhospitable internal environment for pathogenic bacteria C) enhancing the secretion of antibodies by plasma cells D) speeding up defense reactions E) increasing the metabolic rate of body cells

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50

Skin is able to prevent most microorganisms from entering the body by

A) production of antibodies B) having keratin in the uppermost layer C) producing alkaline secretions D) releasing macrophages on the skin surface E) the adhesion junction in the skin preventing bacteria from entering

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51

Antibodies are classified by size, location, and function, and which one of the following represents the most common type of immunoglobulin?

A) IgG B) MHC C) IgA D) IgD E) IgM

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52

Which one of the following best explains why people get so many colds in their lifetime?

A) The B cells of these individuals destroy their T cells. B) The viruses that cause these colds constantly produce new antibodies, which cause the symptoms. C) The viruses that cause colds evolve rapidly, which results in a change in their antigenic structure. D) The immune system has a hard time identifying the viruses that cause the colds. E) These individuals do not produce enough white blood cells.

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53

Lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disorder in which the body attacks

A) the spleen B) heart tissue C) the brain D) its own antibodies E) its own connective tissue

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54

Which one type of cells are responsible for producing and releasing antibodies?

A) T lymphocytes B) natural killer cells C) B lymphocytes D) red bone marrow E) macrophages

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55

Referring to the figure above, the progression from Phase II HIV infection to Phase III is marked by

A) a high fever and swollen lymph nodes B) decreasing number of HIV in the blood C) drop in the helper T cell count to less than 200/mm3 D) complete absence of antibodies to HIV E) helper T cell numbers recovering from an initial drop

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56

Which one of the following is correct regarding the structure of an antibody?

A) Only one polypeptide in an antibody has a constant region and a variable region. B) An antibody is made up of two polypeptide chains linked by hydrogen bonds. C) The four polypeptide chains that make up an antibody molecule are linked by disulfide bonds. D) The constant regions of the polypeptides in an antibody form antigen-binding sites. E) The polypeptides making up an antibody are connected by hydrogen bonds.

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57

The release of chemicals from injured cells triggers histamine release from

A) B cells B) neutrophils C) macrophages D) phagocytes E) mast cells

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58

Which one of the following is characteristic of T lymphocytes but NOT B lymphocytes?

A) antibody-mediated immunity B) production of plasma cells C) maturation in the red bone marrow D) production of immunoglobulins E) direct attack of antigen-bearing cells

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59

Which one of the following types of T cells is a critical component of the immune system because it stimulates and enhances the activity of other components of the immune system?

A) T memory cell B) cytotoxic T cell C) T helper cell D) T suppressor cell E) natural killer cells

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60

The advantage of having memory cells in specific defenses is that

A) they prevent viruses from entering the body a second time B) they produce antibodies and can become phagocytic C) they prevent production of other proteins so that antibodies can be produced D) they remain in an active state, continuously producing antibodies E) if exposed to an antigen a second time, they quickly become plasma cells

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61

All of the following are involved in the generation of an allergic response EXCEPT which one?

A) IgG B) histamine C) IgE D) allergen E) mast cells and basophils

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62

HIV is classified as a retrovirus because

A) it makes a DNA copy of its RNA once inside the host cell B) it reverts to an inactive form when it infects B lymphocytes C) this virus is composed of two cells surrounded by a lipoprotein coat D) it causes the production of HIV antibodies E) it infects only cells with a CD4 receptor

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63

Which of the following is TRUE regarding HIV and AIDS?

A) Most of the people infected with HIV live in South America, where the disease originated. B) Due to improved education and prevention methods in the United States, the number of newly diagnosed cases of AIDS is rapidly declining. C) Approximately 100,000 people worldwide die each year from AIDS. D) If an individual with AIDS gets proper medical attention, he or she probably will not die from complications associated with this syndrome. E) Symptoms of AIDS do not normally appear until years after HIV detection.

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64

Any substance that produces an inappropriate response of the immune system is referred to as a(an)

A) plasma cell B) allergen C) antibody D) allergy E) perforin

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65

Why do some physicians advise patients with a bladder infection to drink a lot of cranberry juice?

A) Cranberry juice makes the urine more acidic, decreasing the rate at which microorganisms can grow and reproduce. B) The increased volume of fluid in the bladder causes bacterial cells to burst as they absorb the excess fluid. C) Cranberry juice increases the efficiency of urine production by the kidneys. D) Cranberry juice enhances the action of phagocytic cells. E) Cranberry juice contains chemicals that kill viruses and bacteria.

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66

Once a macrophage engulfs a bacterium, what happens to the foreign cell?

A) The macrophage is attacked by antibodies, killing the cell and bacterium. B) It is released into the lymph system for removal from the body. C) The bacterium is killed by digestive enzymes released from lysosomes. D) It is released into the digestive tract for removal from the body. E) Antibodies penetrate the macrophage to lyse the bacterial cell.

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67

Developing strategies for treating HIV infection and preventing AIDS in sub-Saharan Africa have been complicated by

A) intense competition from European and North American pharmaceutical corporations in providing funds for education and treatment of AIDS B) the inability to identify AIDS patients located in sub-Saharan Africa C) a complex network of roads for travel to villages D) an overabundance of medical personnel in the region E) medical records being coded differently than in North America

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68

All of the following are routinely done to assure a successful organ transplant and minimize the chance of organ rejection EXCEPT which one?

A) match the MHC tissue types of donor and recipient B) give the recipient immunosuppressive drugs to suppress reactions against the transplanted tissue C) match the ABO blood types of donor and recipient D) give the recipient antibiotics to control any infections E) irradiate the recipient to knock out his or her immune system prior to the transplant

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69

Which immune system cell must be presented with antigen by an antigen-presenting cell such as a macrophage, in order to become appropriately activated?

A) B lymphocyte B) T lymphocyte C) plasma cell D) macrophage E) natural killer cell

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70

Which one of the following is TRUE regarding the spleen?

A) White pulp of the spleen contains macrophages that kill microorganisms circulating in the lymph. B) Red pulp of the spleen contains primarily lymphocytes. C) The spleen has the same functions as the tonsils. D) It is located in the lower portion of the thoracic cavity. E) Red pulp of the spleen stores excess blood.

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71

Identify the figure above.

A) antibody B) complement C) pyrogen D) interferon E) antigen

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72

The bubonic plague epidemic that swept through Europe between 1348 and 1350 A.D. was induced by a(n)

A) bacterium B) unidentified eukaryotic organism C) virus D) protozoan E) prion

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73

An individual with an uncertain vaccine history has been brought to the emergency room after receiving severe lacerations in an accident with farm machinery. In addition to administering a tetanus toxoid vaccine, he is also given a shot of tetanus immune globulin (TIG), a form of passive immunization. Why are both necessary?

A) The tetanus vaccine provides immediate protection, and the tetanus immune globulin provides long-term protection. B) Tetanus immune globulin is always given along with the tetanus vaccine. C) The tetanus immune globulin is given only when there are severe injuries and a high risk of infection. D) The doctor is not sure which will work faster in this patient, so decides to administer both. E) The tetanus immune globulin provides immediate, short-term protection, and the tetanus vaccine provides long-term protection.

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74

Which of the following are proteins in the blood, which when activated can lyse bacterial cells, mark other bacterial cells for destruction, and enhance inflammation?

A) complement B) albumins C) interferons D) lymphokines E) antibodies

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75

During cytotoxic T cell attack of a target cell, which one of the following is released to pierce the cell membrane of the foreign cell, which ultimately kills the target cell?

A) interferon B) antibody C) eosinophil D) perforin E) histamine

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76

When comparing viruses and bacteria, which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

A) Viruses and bacteria both contain genetic material. B) Viruses have membrane-bound organelles; bacteria do not have membrane-bound organelles. C) Viruses are larger than bacteria. D) Viruses and bacteria are both able to reproduce on their own. E) Viruses are pathogens; bacteria are decomposers.

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77

All of the following are used in the production of monoclonal antibodies EXCEPT which one?

A) mouse B cells B) antigen C) cell culturing media and supplies D) mouse T cells E) myeloma (cancer) cells

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78

Viral-infected human cells often send out special proteins that serve as an early warning system to uninfected cells. In response, the uninfected cells develop antiviral proteins that protect them. The early warning proteins sent out by viral-infected cells are

A) interferon B) antigens C) antibiotics D) complement E) antibodies

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79

Passive immunity differs from active immunity in that passive immunity

A) involves the administration of preformed antibodies B) results in the production of antibodies C) causes long-term immunity D) is not effective against a preexisting condition E) results in the production of memory cells

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80

Which of the following is associated with the specific defenses of the body?

A) cell-mediated immunity B) the inflammatory response C) phagocytosis D) the complement system E) interferons

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81

Which of the following body fluids does not transmit HIV from human to human?

A) breast milk B) vaginal fluid C) saliva D) semen E) blood

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82

Vaccines contain

A) antigens of the pathogen B) lymphokines C) antibodies of the pathogen D) T cells programmed to attack the pathogen E) memory cells against the pathogen

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83

Which one of the following would result in passive immunity?

A) production of memory cells B) vaccination C) stimulation of T cells and B cells by an antigen D) past occurrence of an infection or disease E) movement of antibodies across the placenta from mother to child

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84

Which of the following leukocytes kills its target cells, such as cancer cells or virus-infected cells, by releasing chemicals that break down the target cell membrane?

A) macrophages B) natural killer cells C) T lymphocytes D) B lymphocytes E) basophils

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85

All of the following represent physical and/or chemical barriers that form the body's first line of defense against pathogens EXCEPT which one?

A) earwax B) antibodies C) skin surface D) resident bacteria E) tears

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86

Once a prion enters a nerve cell, it essentially

A) differentiates into a nonreplicating virus B) becomes self-propagating, causing misfolding of nearby normal proteins C) assumes the correct folding orientation for the protein D) stops the cascade of misfolding events associated with adjacent cells E) differentiates into a replicating virus

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87

Which one of the following enables T helper cells to stimulate and activate other cells of the immune response?

A) histamine B) interferon C) antibodies D) complement E) cytokines

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88

The figure above illustrates antibody titers produced during a primary and secondary immune response. All of the following statements about the primary and secondary immune response are correct EXCEPT which one?

A) The difference between the two responses is due to the presence of memory cells during the secondary response. B) Antibody is produced at a much higher rate during the secondary immune response. C) The antibody level produced in the secondary response is three times greater than that produced during the primary immune response. D) Antibody levels stay elevated for a longer time following a secondary response. E) There is a lag time between antigen exposure and antibody production in the primary immune response that is not seen in the secondary immune response.

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89

Bacteria are helpful to humans in many ways, including all of the following EXCEPT which one?

A) digestion of cellulose in the human intestine B) production of soy sauce C) production of vitamins for the human body D) breakdown of raw sewage E) production of antibiotics

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90

Which of the following antibodies would most likely be involved with the immune response against a microorganism entering the digestive or reproductive tract?

A) IgD B) IgE C) IgM D) IgA E) IgG

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91

Body defenses that respond to generalized tissue damage and many common pathogens are referred to as

A) antipathogenic responses B) specific mechanisms C) lymphomas D) phagocytic E) nonspecific mechanisms

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92

Tears and saliva contain the enzyme dermicidin, which is effective in preventing bacteria from entering the human body.

True/False

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93

The bacteria that normally live on the mucous membranes of the digestive tract and vagina provide protection against infection with harmful disease-producing microorganisms.

True/False

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94

Viral infections can usually be treated with antibiotics.

True/False

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95

Prions are infectious proteins that cause normal proteins in the brain to misfold.

True/False

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96

Bacterial pathogens cause symptoms of a disease by invading host cells or by producing toxins that damage host cells.

True/False

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97

When considering transfusions or transplants, it is more difficult to match blood than to match tissue types because blood cells have more self markers on their surface.

True/False

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98

Individuals infected with HIV produce antibodies, but these antibodies don't prevent progression to Phase II and Phase III of infection.

True/False

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99

The best way to reduce bacterial pathogens in the blood stream is to reduce a fever as quickly as possible.

True/False

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100

One role of MHC proteins is that they serve as self markers to the human immune system.

True/False

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