Pathophysiology Exam 3 Study Guide

The adrenal cortical hormones responsible for the development of secondary sex characteristics mainly in men are

androgens

A thyroid storm is a life-threatening form of thyrotoxicosis that commonly has extreme _________ effects

cardiovascular

The clinical syndrome that occurs with increased levels of thyroid hormones is

hyperthyroidism

In type 1 Diabetes there is autoimmune destruction of _______ cells

beta

The type of hepatitis that can be passed during pregnancy to the newborn is

hepatitis B

Hormones that affect glucose levels and insulin release include

glucagon, cortisol, epinephrine, and growth hormone.

 A blood sugar less than 30 mg/dL can cause

coma

In hypothyroidism, the lab test most characteristic of this disorder is

high TSH and low T4 levels

 A blood glucose of 55 mg/dL at 2 am and 150 mg/dL at 7 am is due to the

 Somogyi effect.

The most common complication expected in type 1 diabetes is

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

The endocrine gland called the master gland is the ________ gland

pituitary

Release and synthesis of anterior pituitary hormones are mainly regulated by the

hypothalamus

Abnormally large hands and feet, broad face, and protruding jaw are signs of

acromegaly

The pancreatic cells that secrete insulin are ______ cells

beta

The hormone responsible for maintaining glucose levels between meals and during fasting is

glucagon

The major influence of thyroid hormones is to ________ metabolic rate

increase

The most common, acquired cause of hypothyroidism is

Hashimoto’s disease

The most common cause of Cushing Syndrome is

excess corticosteroid use (iatrogenic)

 Endocrine control of emotion, pain, and body temperature occurs in the

hypothalamus

Myxedema is a severe condition associated with

hyperthyroidism

 Addison's Disease is caused by a deficiency of

adrenocortical hormones (cortisol & aldosterone)

 Severe hyperglycemia in the hyperosmolar state is due to decreased _______ production

insulin

Clinical manifestations of Addison’s Disease include hypotension, hypovolemia, and hyponatremia, but NOT

 hypernatremia

 Hormonal responses are regulated by _______ mechanisms.

feedback

 A characteristic sign of diabetes insipidus is _______ amounts of dilute urine

large

 In SIADH, sodium levels are _________ and volume levels are _______

low sodium; high

 A child with insufficient GH will rank below the __________ on the growth chart

 3rd percentile

A round 'moon' face and protruding abdomen are signs of ____________

Cushing’s syndrome

The pituitary hormone responsible for breast milk production is __________

prolactin

 Growth hormone stimulates:

protein synthesis, lipolysis, increased blood glucose, and growth of bones/tissues.

 The test used to monitor fluctuations of blood glucose over 12 weeks is

Hemoglobin A1C

In Type 1 diabetes, there is an absolute lack of

insulin

 Sweating, tremors, headache, and confusion in diabetes are caused by

hypoglycemia

 The metabolic abnormality that leads to Type 2 diabetes is

insulin resistance

 Peripheral neuropathy symptoms include loss of ________ in extremities

sensation

Diabetic retinopathy is characterized by retinal

damage

 A manifestation NOT seen in hyperthyroidism is

weight gain

Excess growth hormone after long bones have fused causes

 acromegaly

A 20-year-old with fruity breath, polyuria, and polydipsia is most likely a __________ diabetic

Type 1

 Obesity and inactivity increase the risk for Type __ diabetes

2

 A random glucose of 215 with blurred vision suggests new onset _________ diabetes.

Type 2

 Insulin release is mainly stimulated by ___________ levels

high glucose

DKA occurs when mobilization of _____________ causes excess ketone production

fat breakdown

 The body compensates for DKA with ____________ respirations

 Kussmaul

Abnormally high bilirubin levels cause

jaundice

 Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels indicate

pancreatitis

RUQ pain after fatty meals suggests

cholelithiasis (gallstones)

Primary liver tumors are ____ common than metastatic tumors

less

The phase of hepatitis with pain, fever, and nausea is the ___________ phase

Preicteric (prodromal)

The only appropriate alternative to injections in Type 1 diabetes is an insulin _________ pump

 infusion

 Lab markers used to diagnose acute pancreatitis are

 amylase and lipase

Epigastric pain relieved by food is suggestive of a _________ ulcer

duodenal

 Causes of gastric carcinoma include

H. pylori, smoking, diet (nitrates/salty foods)

GERD usually involves ________ and acid regurgitation

heartburn

 Daily aspirin use puts a client at risk for ________ ulcers

 gastric

Increased pain with release of pressure in RLQ is a sign of

appendicitis

Patient education for GERD includes eating ______ meals and not lying down immediately after eating

small

The most common symptom of esophageal cancer is

dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)

The #1 cause of peptic ulcers is ________ infection

H.pylori

Alternating constipation and diarrhea is a hallmark of

Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)

Crohn’s disease causes a _________ appearance of the bowel

cobblestone

Bloody diarrhea is characteristic of ________ colitis

ulcerative

C-diff occurs when antibiotics disrupt ________ balance

normal gut flora

 LLQ pain, fever, and elevated WBC suggest

diverticulitis

 Hormones regulate ________ functions in the body

body

RLQ pain and vomiting in a child are signs of

appendicitis

Celiac Disease is an allergy to

gluten

 Irritable Bowel Syndrome is often associated with _______ stress

emotional

The organ that produces bile is the

liver

 A major complication of persistent GERD is

Barret’s esophagus

A hallmark symptom of IBS is abdominal pain relieved by

defecation

 Liver phagocytic cells that remove bacteria are called __________ cells

Kupffer

 Hepatitis A is transmitted via the ________ route

 fecal-oral

Hepatitis B is transmitted by ___________ and caused by a DNA virus

blood/body fluids

The most common cause of chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis is Hepatitis

 C

Match pleural effusions:

Lymph = Chylothorax, Blood = hemothorax, Pus = empyema, Serous =hydrothora

Oxygen saturation is monitored by

pulse oximetry

Pulmonary fibrosis causes decreased lung

compliance

 The best position to ease dyspnea is ________ position

tripod

Orthopnea means inability to breathe while

 lying flat

Bluish skin and mucous membranes is called

cyanosis

The conducting airways do NOT perform ____ exchange

gas

The lungs regulate __________ substances and store ________

 blood pressure; blood

 Hypoxia in lung tissue below 60 mmHg causes pulmonary

vasoconstriction

Ventilation is defined as movement of ____ into and out of the lungs

air

The ____________ are the 'watchdog' of the respiratory system

alveolar macrophages

 Gas exchange occurs in the

alveoli

The collapsing pressure of alveoli is called

surface tension

Peripheral chemoreceptors sense changes in blood _______ levels

oxygen

 Chemoreceptors increase ventilation when PO2 drops below

60 mmHg

COPD patients rely on __________ as a stimulus for breathing

low oxygen (hypoxic drive)

The most common cold virus is

rhinovirus

Pneumonia always causes a productive cough

False

 The most common cause of atelectasis is a ______ plug

mucus

The most common cause of pneumonia is

 streptococcus pneumoniae

The respiratory zone includes alveoli, ducts, and bronchioles but not

bronchi

Wheezing in asthma is due to airway

narrowing (bronchoconstriction)

Emphysema patients are called ______ puffers

 pink

Respiratory failure causes hypoxemia and

hypercapnia

 In COPD, O2 should be kept low because high O2 may remove the drive to breathe, so leave O2 at _______ lite

low (about 1-2 L-min)