Dental Hygiene Theory Questions

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71 Terms

1
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ADHA stand for

American Dental Hygienists Association

2
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True or False: Prescribing Medication is a professional role of the dental hygienist

False

3
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State the seven professional roles of the dental hygienist

Clinician, Corporate, Public Health, Researcher, Educator, Administrator, Entrepeneur

4
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The Act that established national privacy standards as it related to the release of patient information in the health-care industry is called

HIPPA

5
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What does the health history enables the dental hygienist to do?

Establish baseline information about the patients’ health, maintain legal documentation, identify conditions for which the patient should be referred for evaluation

6
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True or False: The health history form should be completed by the patient and verified by the dental hygienist

True

7
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True or False: The dental hygienist should review the history at each appointment to verify document changes

True

8
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The standard regimen of prophylactic antibiotic medication for an adult patient who must receive it before dental treatment is

2 grams of amoxicillin 1 hour before procedure

9
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__________ was issued the first dental hygiene license in 1927.

Irene Newman

10
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True or False: As soon as a student graduates from an accredited dental hygiene school, he/she can practice as a dental hygienist

False

11
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True or False: At Regis College and YES answers written on the medical history needs to be circles with the student’s RED pencil.

True

12
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True or False: When a hygienist reviews a medical history a hygienist needs to understand the limitations on the health history which include the patient might not provide the correct information and the patient may not understand the importance of the history.

True

13
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When was HIPPA law put into action?

1996

14
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What does PHI stand for?

Protected Health Information

15
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What does HIPAA do?

hold violators accountable with civil and criminal penalties, protect patient privacy, provide security of health record without impending patient care

16
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What are the safeguards the HIPAA establishes?

Physical, Administrative, Technical

17
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True or False: HIPAA was designed to provide privacy standards to protect patients medical records

True

18
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What falls under PHI?

Patients address, email, phone number, past health conditions, social security number, date of birth, their current/future health conditions, Oral communication between patient and provider, Diagnosis and treatment plans

19
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True or False: A minor under age may sign HIPPA

False

20
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True or False: Aerosols are particles that are larger than 50 microns

False

21
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True or False: Aerosols are not visible to the naked eyes, can remain airborne for extended time, and may be inhaled.

True

22
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Bacterial filtration efficiency determines the ability to filter out bacterial contaminants and it has been determined that a mask with a filtration level of _______________ provides high level of protection for most exposures.

95-98% of 3-5 micron particles

23
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True or False: I do not need to wear protective eyewear if I use a face shield as part of my PPE

False, you still need to wear protective eyewear

24
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What is the order of PPE?

Protective gown, mask, protective eyewear, gloves

25
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Sharps containers should be no more that _______ full to avoid protrusion of sharps.

3/4

26
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What are the six elements in the chain of infection:

Infectious agent, susceptible host, reservoir, portal of entry, portal of exit, transmission

27
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True or False: Viruses are smaller than bacteria and reproduce only in living host.

True

28
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True or False: Viruses include Hepatitis A, B, C, D and HIV.

True 

29
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When working on your patients, when should your mask be changed?

after every patients and whenever it becomes damp

30
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__________ bacteria is picked up from things that are touched, and is removed within thorough handwashing.

Transient

31
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________ is an approach to infection control that treats all human blood and human body fluids as if they are known to be infectious for HIV, Hepatitis B, and other bloodborne pathogens.

Standard Precautions

32
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True or False: Fever is a possible cause of carpal tunnel syndrome

False 

33
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What are some possible causes of carpal tunnel syndrome?

Arthritis, Tumor in wrist, Pregnancy 

34
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True or False: Bradycardia is when a patient’s pulse rate is below 50 beats per minute 

True 

35
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True or False: The adult pulse rate can range from 60-100 beats per minute

True 

36
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Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the _________ nerve become compressed in the carpal tunnel

Median

37
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True or False: Korotkoff is the first sound that is heard through the stethoscope, which indicates the diastolic pressure 

False

38
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True or False: The size of the blood pressure cuff should be 20% greater than the diameter of the arm, as a cuff too small will result in an artificially elevated blood pressure

True 

39
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The respiration rate is assessed by counting the ______ of the patient’s Chest

Rise and fall

40
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True or False: When taking a pulse, you use the tips of the thumb, index, and middle fingers

False

41
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True or False: The fingers are placed over the ulnar pulse, located on the thumb side of the ventral side of the wrist

False

42
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True or False: When taking a temperature, the clinician should ask if the patient has ingested anything hot/cold in the last 30 minutes

True

43
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True or False: The temperature probe should be placed under the tongue

True 

44
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List symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome

Pain in hands when working, pain in wrist, shoulder, neck, nocturnal pain in hands/forearms

45
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Which tests determine the presence of carpal tunnel syndrome?

Phalen’s test and Tinel’s sign

46
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True or False: You take the vitals of your patient, 41-year-old Patient A, whose blood pressure is 130/85 and oral temperature is 99.9. Patients A blood pressure is considered Stage 1 hypertension.

True

47
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True or False: You take the vitals of your patient, 41-year-old Patient A, whose blood pressure is 130/85 and oral temperature is 99.9. Patients A temperature is considered normal.

False 

48
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Your patient’s attached gingiva has an “orange-peel” look to it. This is called _______

Stippling 

49
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Your patient’s gingiva is uniformly pale/pink pigmented. You would consider this color to indicate ________

Health

50
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As you use your Nabors Probe (furcation probe), you notice the probe can go all the way through to the other side of the furcation, AND it is covered by soft tissue and is not visible. You would classify this furcation as 

Class III

51
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If your patient has inflammation in between teeth 8 and 9 and along margins of 8 and 9, this would be considered ______________

Localized Marginal Gingivitis 

52
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True or False: The average histologic depth of the healthy sulus is about 0.8-2.1mm with no bleeding on probing

True 

53
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True or False: The average clinical probing depth of the normal gingival sulcus is 1.3-2.7mm

True 

54
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True or False: Modifiable risk factors include Genetic disorders

False 

55
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What does modifiable risk factors include

poor oral hygiene, smoking, stress

56
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True or False: The col is a saddle of interdental gingiva that connects the mesial and distal aspects of interdental papilla.

False

57
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True or False: The center of the col is keratinized.

False

58
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Your patient presents with localized serve marginal inflammation with apical migration of the junctional epithelium between teeth 24 and 25. How would you clinically classify this patients’ oral tissues between 24 and 25?

Periodontitis

59
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Your patient presents with mobility, and the tooth can be moved up to 1mm in any direction. This classification of mobility is considered.

Class I

60
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__________ is/are a localized recession, V-shaped, forming a slit-like indentation in the gingiva.

Stillmans Cleft

61
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In order to examine the TMJ, during the extraoral examination, you use ___________ palpation

bilateral 

62
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The opening to the Parotid gland is called the ________ Duct. You dry the duct and try to express a drop of saliva to _________ the gland.

Stenson’s; milk

63
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The proper positioning for an extraoral examination is to have the patient 

In an upright position

64
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The proper positioning for an intraoral examination is to have the patient 

In a supine position 

65
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The thyroid gland:

has a “bowite” shape, sits below the larynx, is located in the middle of the lower neck

66
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True or False: To visually inspect the tongue, a damp gauze should be used to grasp and extend it, looking at the dorsal and ventral and lateral sides

True 

67
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True or False: The entire body of the tongue should be bidigitally palpated

True

68
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What is the proper sequence of an extraoral examination?

There is no correct sequence as long as it is logical and efficient

69
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When performing an extraoral oral examination the clinical must use ____ to compress tissues against the underlying bone

circular motion

70
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You stand in front of your patient and complete a general appraisal of her face, head, and neck checking for symmetry. What skill are you using?

Observation 

71
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True or False: When trying to locate the TMJ the clinician must place the index fingers just in front of the tragus of each ear and ask the patient to open and close

True