Module 1: Inorganic Chemistry - Practice Questions - Manor

B

1. The ratio of disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of the bacterium Salmonella typhi:

a. Phenol number

b. Phenol coefficient

c. Phenol value

d. None of the above

C

2. The generic name of Nizoral:

a. Meconazole

b. Clotrimazole

c. Ketoconazole

d. Potassium sorbate

C

3. Sulfonamides used for burn therapy:

a. Mafenide

b. Silver sulfadiazine

c. both a and b

d. none of the preceeding

A

4. The following are preservatives except:

a. undecylenic acid

b. Methyl paraben

c. benzoic acid

d. potassium sorbate

C

5. The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is also known as:

a. clotrimazole

b. miconazole

c. co-trimoxazole

d. cotrimazine

B

6. A polyene anti-fungal antibiotic:

a. Griseofulvin

b. Nystatin

c. Salicylic acid

d. Econazole

A

7. Benzyl penicillin is also known as:

a. Penicillin G

b. Penicillin V

c. Oxacillin

d. Ampicillin

D

8. First generation urinary tract anti-infective:

a. salicylic acid

b. Griseofulvin

c. Norfloxacin

d. Nalidixic acid

A

9. A fluoroquinolone:

a. Norfloxacin

b. Pipemedic acid

c. Methenamine

d. none of the above

D

10. Combination therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis contain the following drugs, except:

a. Ethambutol

b. Rifampin

c. Isoniazid

d. Streptomycin

B

11. These drugs are used in treatment of amoebic dysentery, except:

a. Tinidazole

b. Chloroquine

c. Etofamide

d. Metronidazole

B

12. A fourth generation cephalosphorins:

a. Cefaloxin

b. Cefepime

c. Cefamandole

d. Cefuroxime

C

13. This drug is used in the treatment of chicken pox:

a. Zidovudine

b. Chloroquine

c. Acyclovir

d. Metronidazole

A

14. The drug of choice for typhoid fever:

a. Chloramphenicol

b. Lincomycin

c. Penicillin

d. Cephalosporins

D

15. The generic name of Dalacin C which is often used to treat pimples:

a. Erythromycin

b. Tetracycline

c. Lincomycin

d. Clindamycin

B

16. The study of chemical agents which are selectively more toxic to the invading organisms than the host:

a. therapeutics

b. chemotherapy

c. organic chemistry

d. biochemistry

C

17. Compounds that kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms when applied to living tissues:

a. disinfectant

b. fungicides

c. antiseptics

d. systemic anti-infectives

A

18. A combination of non-ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine:

a. Povidone-Ioduine

b. Strong I2 solution

c. Iodine Tincture

d. I2 in KI solution

D

19. The generic name of new Merthiolate is:

a. Chorhexidine gluconate

b. Thimerosal

c. Mexachlorophene

d. Benzalkonium chloride

B

20. Mechanism of action of quinolones:

a. injury to plasma membrane

b. inhibition of DNA gyrase

c. protein synthesis inhibition

d. production of toxic free radicals

B

21. Prodrugs of active anti-malarial metabolites, the dihydrotriazines:

a. quinolines

b. biguanides

c. beta-lactams

d. quinolones

A

22. 7-chloro-7-deoxy lincomycin:

a. clindamycin

b. roxithromycin

c. spectinomycin

d. ilotycin

D

23. The drug is effective against both exoerythrocytic and erythrocytic forms of malaria:

a. chloroquine

b. quinine

c. amodiaquine

d. cycloguanil

B

24. Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for malaria:

a. amodiaquine

b. mefloquine

c. atabrine

d. daraprim

B

25. An aromatic diamide derivative used for sleeping sickness:

a. suramin

b. pentamidine

c. efflornithine

d. stibophen

A

26. Methylated erythromycin:

a. clarithromycin b. azithromycin c. lincomycin d. ilotycin

B

27. A semi-synthetic aminoglycoside whose structural prototype is kanamycin:

a. Kantrex b. Amikin c. Garamycin d. Nebcin

B

28. Structural congener of Symmetrel which is used for viral influenza:

a. ribavirin b. rimantadine c. gancyclovir d. foscarnet

A

29. More potent optical isomer of ofloxacin:

a. levo b. dextro c. cis isomer d. trans isomer

B

30. These group of drugs share the same mechanism of action as that of sulfanilamide but are less effective:

a. trimethoprim b. sulfones c. quinolones d. none of the above

B

31. Mechanism of action of thiabendazole:

a. paralysis due to GABA receptor occupation c. phagocytic attack on worms

b. inhibition of cell division d. decreased glucose uptake

B

32. This anti-burn therapy causes systemic acidosis:

a. silvadene b. sulfamylon c. whitfield d. vandol

C

33. Drug of choice for filarial infections:

a. ivermectin c. diethylcarbamazine

b. praziquantel d. Stibophen

B

34. Active form of the sulfonamide:

a. non-ionized b. ionized c. amphoteric d. oxo ring

B

35. Use of crotamiton:

a. pediculicide b. scabicide c.anthelmintic d. antibacterial

C

36. Mechanism of action of mebendazole:

a. paralysis due to excessive loss of calcium c. decreased glucose uptake

b. unknown mechanism of action d. phagocytic attack on worms

D

37. A sympathomimetic agent that bind to alpha receptors found centrally that cause suppression of appetite:

a. Xenical b. Gas-X c. Apokinon d. Adifax

B

38. An example of a glycine conjugation pathway:

a. phenol to phenolsulfate c. noradrenaline to epinephrine

b. benzoic acid to hippuric acid d. antabuse to dithiocarbamic acid

B

39. The following are characteristics of active transport, except:

a. follow saturation kinetics c. carrier mediated

b. expenditure of energy d. higher to lower concentration gradient

B

40. These anti-diarrheals tend to decrease pore sizes of GIT epithelial to prevent formation of watery stools:

a. adsorbents b. astringents c. anti-motility d. oresols

C

41. This anti-histamine possesses the same indications as that of diphenhydramine:

a. meclizine b. hyoscine c. dimenhydrinate d. celestamine

A

42. The metabolism of warfarin is induced by the following except:

a. tolbutamide b. haloperidol c. nitroglycerine d. DDT

C

43. Fertility vitamins:

a. retinoic acid b. riboflavin c. alpha tocopherol d. biotin

C

44. Calcitriol, a hormone responsible for enhanced absorption of calcium from the intestines, is synthesized

from:

a. calcitonin b. vitamin D2 c. vitamin D3 d. caltrate

A

45. A metabolite of chloral hydrate:

a. trichloroacetic acid b. acetaldehyde c. carbapenem ring d. phenacetone

A

46. A sample drug excreted via the saliva:

a. lidocaine b. sulfonamide c. sulfonamide d. thiamine

B

47. A vitamin A derivative used in the management of psoriasis:

a. Retin-A b. Tegison c. Accutane d. Oilatum

B

48. Structurally specific drugs are those whose activity depends on:

a. physical characteristics c. both a and c

b. ability to bind on a specific receptor d. none of the above

A

49. The most potent anti-bacterial alcohol:

a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary

A

50. Product of acid hydrolysis of penicillins:

a. penicillenic acid b. penicilloic acid c. penicilloate Cl d. pinecillic acid

B

51. Cidex:

a. gammabenzenehexachloride c. hexachlorophene

b. glutarol d. carbamoyl phosphate

B

52. Presence of electron withdrawing groups attached to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins

render:

a. activity against Pseudomonas c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria

b. acid stability d. penicillinase resistance

D

53. Attachment of bulky groups to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render:

a. activity against Pseudomonas c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria

b. acid stability d. penicillinase resistance

B

54. A glycopeptide antibiotic:

a. beta-lactam b. vancomycin c. polymyxin d. probenecid

C

55. A tumor is benign if:

a. metastasis is evident

b. cell originating from the tumor may invade other tissues and cause damage

c. tumor mass may be removed by surgery and regression of remaining cells occur

d. cause damage to surrounding structures

B

56. 1 gram mass of tumor is equivalent to:

a. 100,000 cancer cells b. 1 billion cancer cells c. 1 million cancer cells d. none of the above

C

57. The following are mucolytics, except:

a. bromhexine b. acetylcysteine c. caramiphen d. none of the above

C

58. The side effects of steroids used for asthma are minimized when the drug is given:

a. orally b. intravenously c. via inhalation d. rectally

B

59. A progesterone derivative which is used for the treatment of endometrial cancer:

a. tamoxifen b. depo-provera c. flutamide d. goserelin

B

60. Drug of choice for absence seizures:

a. carbamazepine b. ethosuximide c. phenytoin d. primidone

C

61. An anti-oxidant added in food products which are potent carcinogens:

a. aspartame b. PCP c. BHT d. EDTA

A

62. Pentavalent antimony in the presence hydrochloric acid gives a violet precipitate with this pink dye:

a. rhodomine B c. p-nitrobenzene azo-resorcinol

b. aluminum reagent d. dimethylglyoxime

C

63. Expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil of Fagus grandiflora:

a. potassium iodide b. tyloxapol c. guaiafenesin d. emetine

B

64. Mescaline is a _________ derivative:

a. indolethylamine b. phenylethylamine c. steroidal d. xanthine

D

65. Anesthetic of choice for labor:

a. halothane b. enflurance c. nitrous oxide d. methoxyflurane

B

66. The drug of choice for the acute attack of migraine:

a. Codeine b. Avamigran c. Litec d. Inderal

C

67. Anesthetic of choice for patients with asthma:

a. ketamine b. thiopental c. enflurane d. none of the above

D

68. Propionic acid derivative:

a. paracetamol b. dipyrone c. piroxicam d. naproxen

B

69. An example of iodophor:

a. iodine tincture b. povidone-iodine c. Lugol's solution d. all of the above

B

70. Phenylmethanol:

a. chloretone b. benzyl alcohol c. phenylalcohol d. carvacrol

A

71. A characteristic of cancer cells:

a. lack of normal growth controls c. G0 phase is the resting phase for all cell types

b. synthesis of DNA occurs in the M phase d. None of the above

A

72. Carcinogenic substances obtained from paper products:

a. polychlorinated biphenyls c. butylatedhydroxyanisole

b. acesulfame d. none of the above

C

73. Prostaglandins are also known as:

a. saturated fats b. compound lipids c. eicosanoids d. all of the above

C

74. Which of the following functional groups is the most basic?

a. imide b. amide c. amine d. aniline

A

75. Derivatives of benzylsulfonylureas are:

a. oral hypoglycemics b. diuretics c. anti-inflammatory d. spasmolytic

B

76. A necessary precursor of visual pigment is:

a. tocopherol b. retinal c. ergosterol d. retinol

C

77. Paracetamol is a/an:

a. salicylate b. pyrazolone c. aniline derivative d. azocine derivative

B

78. All of the following are progestins except:

a. norethindrone b. testosterone c. ethynodiol diacetate d. progesterone

C

79. Aspirin is to salicylic acid as morphine is to:

a. codeine b. methadone c. heroin d. pentazocine

A

80. The functional group in pyridoxine is:

a. alcohol b. amine c. carboxylic acid d. ketone

A

81. Ascorbic acid and tetracycline are:

a. enols b. esters c. ethers d. amines

C

82. MAO is classified as a/an:

a. protein inhibitor b. complexing agent c. enzyme d. hormone

C

83. When used in pharmaceutic preparations, the purpose of hydroquinone, lecithin and alpha tocopherol is:

a. humectant c. oil soluble antioxidant

b. demelanizing agent d. emulsifying agent

D

84. Naturally occurring alkaloids, derivatives of tropane are:

a. nasal decongestants b. analgesic c. vasoconstrictor d. bronchodilator

A

85. Local anesthetics that is not a derivative of benzoic acid is:

a. lidocaine b. procaine c. dibucaine d. bupivacaine

C

86. All of the following are macrolide antibiotics, except:

a. erythromycin b. oleandomycin c. vancomycin d. spiramycin

B

87. Ativan has this generic name:

a. triazolam b. lorazepam c. flurazepam d. tranexamic acid

B

88. Plasil is:

a. acyclovir b. metoclopramide c. diclofenac sodium d. tranexamic acid

C

89. The principal hydrolytic degradation product of aspirin is:

a. methyl salicylate b. acetyl chloride c. salicylic acid d. salicylamide

D

90. Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom are usually:

a. short acting b. intermediate acting c. long acting d. ultra short acting

D

91. Although the prostaglandins are hormone-like, they may closely resemble which of the following

chemically?

a. enzymes b. porphyrins c. proteins d. lipids

A

92. The onset and duration of barbiturate action is mainly a function of its:

a. lipid solubility c. plasma binding

b. renal excretion d. method of administration

B

93. The prototype narcotic antagonist is:

a. nalorphine b. naloxone c. levallorphan d. meperidine

D

94. Lysergic acid diethylamide is:

a. derived from mushroom c. histamine analog

b. a parasympathetic drug d. ergot derivative

B

95. Orthohydroxybenzoic acid is:

a. acetic acid b. salicylic acid c. oxalic acid d. citric acid

B

96. Diamox has a generic name of:

a. allopurinol b. acetazolamide c. dimethylxanthine d. theophylline

C

97. Diphenoxylate is a structural analog of:

a. dilantin b. codeine c. meperidine d. naloxone

B

98. Cevitamic acid is:

a. folic acid b. ascorbic acid c. nicotinic acid d. glacial acetic acid

B

99. Chloroquine is the generic name of:

a. atabrine b. artane c. aralen d. akineton

D

100. Kantrex belongs to this type of antibiotics:

a. penicillins b. cephalosphorins c. macrolides d.. aminoglycosides