Module 2: Biochemistry - Practice Questions - Manor

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298 Terms

1
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B

1. The inhibition in noncompetitive reaction _________________.

a. competes with the active site of the enzyme

b. binds simultaneously with substrate other than the active site

c. increases the rate of reaction

d. both b and c

2
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A

2. The order and sequence of amino acid in a polypeptide determines what protein structure

a. primary c. tertiary

b. secondary d. quaternary

3
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B

3. Amino acids that cannot be synthesized in the organism are called__________.

a. non essential amino acids c. standard amino acids

b. essential amino acids d. alpha amino acids

4
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A

4. Which hormones regulates the level of blood sodium?

a. aldosterone c. corticosteroid

b. sterol d. cortisone

5
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A

5. It is a precursor of vit. A

a. B-carotene c. retinal

b. retinol d. opium

6
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C

6. Which of the following is a precursor of vitamin D?

a. prostaglandin c. cholesterol

b. linoleic acid d. aldosterone

7
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A

7. Which of these class of enzymes introduces double-bond by the removal of hydrogen

a. dehydrogenase c.decarboxylase

b. dehydrolase d. lipase

8
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A

8. The ionic property of amino acid is exhibited by its

a. zwitterions form c. COO group

b. NH2 group d. positively charged groups

9
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D

9. All of the following are simple proteins except:

a. glutelins c. albumins

b. globulins d. glycoproteins

10
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C

10. The simplest monosaccharide is __________________

a. erythrose c. glyceraldehydes

b. starch d. arabinose

11
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C

11. Denaturation of protein is a result of

a. cleavage of the peptide bond c. breaking of H-bond

b. formation of H-bond d. none of these

12
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A

12. Competitive inhibition is a _________________ reaction.

a. reversible c. pH and temperature

b. irreversible d. none of these

13
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A

13. In the Seliwanioff's test, the reaction of resorcinol and acid on the sugar forms___________.

a. hydroxymethyl furfural c. hydraxine

b. pyranose d. purine

14
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A

14. High concentration of neutral salts causes the precipitation of proteins. This is called__________.

a. salting out c. coagulation

b. salting in d. both b & c

15
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A

15. It is the type of enzyme inhibition reaction whereby the inhibition competes with the substrate active site.

a. competitive inhibition c. reversible inhibition

b. noncompetitive d. incomplete inhibition

16
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C

16. The following are waxes except:

a. beeswax c. bile acids

b. sperm oil d. lanolin

17
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A

17. The inactive form of enzymes are called ___________.

a. zymogens c. cofactor

b. apoenzymes d. both B & C

18
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D

18. Which of the following amino acids has no alpha amino group?

a. proline c. glycine

b. hydroxyproline d. both a and

19
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B

19. An enzyme is a substance which

a. convert heat to energy b. act as a catalyst

c. change chemically in reaction d. is not specific in reaction

20
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B

20. Milk curdling enzyme present in gastric juice of infants:

a. pepsin b. rennin

c. trypsin d. maltase

21
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A

21. Carbohydrates are

a. polyhydroxyaldehydes / polyhydroxyketones c. hemiacetals

b. polyhydroxy acids d. polymers of amino acids

22
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C

22. Insulin is usually classified as:

a. protein b. enzyme

c. hormone d. carbohydrates

23
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A

23. What amount of glucose is present in the human blood?

a. 60 to 90 mg in 100 ml blood c. 2% of the total human body weight

b. 5 to 6 g in 100 ml blood d. none of these

24
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A

24. It is the organelle which serves as the site of the electron transport chain.

a. mitochondria b. ribosome

c. nucleus d. lysosome

25
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C

25. The end product of the hydrolysis of glycogen is:

a. galactose b. fructose

c. glucose d. arabinose

26
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C

26. Iodine test is a reaction which may be used to identify carbohydrates. The reaction is due to

a. presence of the free aldehyde group

b presence of alcohol group

c. presence of amylose portion

d. presence of glucose

27
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B

27. Benedict's reagent yield positive result to:

a. monosaccharide only b. reducing sugars

c. sucrose d. polysaccharides

28
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B

28. Hypertonic solutions will cause the cell to:

a. swell b. shrink

c. burst d. undergo hemolysis

29
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A

29. Rancidity of fats maybe due to:

a. oxidation b. hydrogenation

c. saponification d. condensation

30
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C

30. The deficiency of this hormone causes diabetes mellitus:

a. progesterone b. testosterone

c. insulin d. glucagons

31
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A

31. The active proteolytic enzyme in gastric juice is:

a. pepsin b. trypsin

c. maltase d. catalase

32
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B

32. The site of oxidation reaction in electron transport chain is in the

a. nucleus b. mitochondrion

c. ribosome d. golgi bodies

33
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B

33. Protein digestion starts in the

a. mouth b. stomach

c. intestine d. pancreas

34
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A

34. The conversion of an amino acid to sugar is:

a. gluconeogenesis b. glycolysis

c. glycogenesis d. glycogenolysisp

35
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B

35. Which of the following is not an amino acid?

a. leucine b. choline

c. valine d. glycine

36
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A

36. The protein part of the enzyme molecule is the:

a.apoenzyme c. cofactor

b.coenzyme d. holoenzyme

37
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C

37. Optimum temperature for enzyme activity in the body:

a.40oC c. 37oC

b.60oC d. 10oC

38
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B

38. Glucose is stored in the liver, as:

a. galactose c. lactose

b. glycogen d. fructose

39
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B

39 The enzyme confirmation adapts to the incoming substrate in

a. Lock and Key theory c. competitive inhibition

b. glycogenesis d. glycogenolysis

40
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B

40. The process of converting glucose into glycogen is called

a. gluconeogenesis c. glycolysis

b. glycogenesis d. glycogenolysis

41
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A

41. All are pyrimidine bases except:

a. guanine c. uracil

b.cystocine d. thymine

42
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B

42. Glucose, amino acid and fatty acid enter the citric acid cycle by their conversion into:

a. pyruvate c. acetoacetyl CoA

b. acetyl CoA d. palmitic acid

43
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A

43. A hormone which stimulates glycogenesis:

a. insulin c. epinephrine

b. glucagons d. vasopressin

44
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A

44. These are chemicals that are extracted from organism such as bacteria and can inhibit growth or destroy other

microorganisms:

a. antibiotic c. hormone

b. enzyme d. vitamins

45
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C

45. The gland or tissue that regulates the blood glucose level.

a. parathyroid c. pancreas

b. thyroid d. adrenal

46
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D

46. Which vitamin is formed in the body by exposure to ultraviolet Irradiation or sunlight

a. vit. A c. vit. C

b. vit. B d. vit. D

47
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C

47. Excess vit. A & D is stored in the body, but excess vit. C & D is readily excreted. What property shows this?

a. vit C & D are water soluble c. both a & b

b. vit. A & D are fat soluble d. none of these

48
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A

48. It is the entire genetic make up of an organism.

a. gene c. codon

b. anticodon d. mutation

49
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B

50. The vitamin which is used in the prevention of degenerative changes in the central nervous system.

a. vit. A c. vit. C

b. vit. B complex d. vit. D

50
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A

51. It is a model which best explains the enzyme-substrate action

a. lock & key c. VSEPR

b. molecular d. Kreb

51
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D

52. The activation of pepsinogen requires:

a. pepsin c. enterokinase

b. NaOH d. HCL

52
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B

53. DNA is primarily found in the

a. cytosol c. cell wall

b. nucleus/mitochondria d. endoplasmic reticulum

53
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B

54. It is the enzyme which hydrolyzed starch to dextrin and maltose

a. catalase c. pepsin

b. amylase d. lactase

54
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D

55. A synthetic DNA is called

a. replicated DNA c. gene

b. plasmid d. recombinant DNA

55
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B

56. Hydrolysis of ATP is an

a. energy requiring reaction c. no energy is involved

b. energy producing reaction d. energy is absorbed

56
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C

57. Which of the following characteristic of lipid?

a. zwitterions c. hydrophobic

b. amphiphilic d. hydrophilic

57
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A

58. It is a condition that results when sugar level is below normal

a. hypoglycemia c. ketonuria

b. hyperglycemia d. uremia

58
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A

59. An example of globular protein

a. albumin c. fibrin

b. collagen d. silk

59
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A

60. Complimentary base pairs in the DNA double helix are bonded by

a. H-bond c. vander waals

b. ester bond d. dipole dipole

60
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C

61. Which nitrogen base is not found in DNA?

a. thymine c. uracil

b. cytosine d. guanine

61
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C

62. An organic cofactor in an enzyme

a. vitamins c. a & b

b. coenzymes d. none of these

62
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B

63. At what stage of glucose oxidation is most of the energy produced?

a. glycolysis c. glycogenesis

b. aerobic stage d. glycogenolysis

63
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D

64. The best known building blocks of RNA and DNA are

a. purines c. fatty acids

b. pyrimidines d. a and b

64
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C

65. It is responsible for the storage and transmission of genetic information.

a. adenine c. DNA

b. RNA d. nucleic acid

65
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C

66. Build up of urea in the kidney is called

a. ketonuria c. uremia

b. glycemia d. all of these

66
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A

67. The transfer of genetic information from DNA by the formation of mRNA

a. transcription c.transamination

b. translation d. replication

67
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D

68. What is the end product of electron transport chain?

a. oxygen c. carbon dioxide

b. hydrogen d. water

68
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B

69. The energy producing reaction

a. metabolic c. anabolic

b. catabolic d. all of these

69
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A

70. It is the molecule that directs the activity of the cells

a. DNA c. nucleoproteins

b. RNA d. hormones

70
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C

71. The sugar involved in DNA

a. ribose c. deoxyribose

b. pentose d. xylose

71
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C

72. The common metabolic pathway

a. glycosis c. Kreb's cycle

b. beta oxidation d. glucogenesis

72
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B

73. Rosenheim's test is used to detect the presence of:

a. ethanolamine b. cholesterol

b. choline d. glycone moiety

73
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C

74. Detects the presence of alpha amino acids:

a. Biuret c. Ninhydrin

b. Molisch d. Hopkins-cole

74
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B

75. The process of producing fats from acetyl co-A is called

a. glycolysis c. glycogenolysis

b. lipogenesis d. glucogenesis

75
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A

76. The ff. test reagents to detect the presence of amino acids, execpt:

a. Grignard's c. Millon-Nasse

b. Xanthoproteic d. Sakaguchi

76
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A

77. The condition that lowers the pH of the blood due to starvation is called

a. acidosis c. hyperglycemia

b. alkalosis d. glycosuria

77
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B

78. The substance responsible or the emulsion of fats is

a. HCI c. pepsin

b. bile acids d. trypsin

78
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B

79. Hubl's solution is used to acertain degree of:

a. saturation c. peroxidation

b. unsaturation d. acidity

79
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B

80. IUPAC name of acrolyn

a. pentenal c. hexanal

c. propenal d. acetone

80
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C

81. The positive indication for the presence of glycerol in acrolein test:

a. yellow colored solution c. silver mirror formed in the test tube

b. black markings on filter d. play of colors, from blue to shades paper of red

81
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B

82. Cerebrosides are positive in the ff. tests, except:

a. Molisch c. Lassaigne's

b. Biuret d. none of the above

82
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B

83. Osmic test is used to detect the presence of _______ in lipids:

a. metals c. unsaturated groups

b. prostate groups d. glycerol

83
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A

84. The most sensitive chemical test to detect the presence of glycerol in acrolein test:

a. Liebberman-Burchard b. Formaldehyde-sulfuric acid

b. Salkowski reaction d. Colorimetric spectrophotometry

84
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D

85. The ff. are phospholipids, except:

a. plasmalogen c. cephalin

b. lecithin d. choline

85
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C

86. A mixed triglyceride contains:

a. three similar fatty acids esterified with glycerol

b. two similar fatty acids esterified with glycerol

c. three differebt fatty acids esterified with glycerol

d. all of the above

86
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B

87. The central compound found in the structure of sphingolipids:

a. glycerol c. ceramide

b. sphingosine d. phosphocholine

87
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A

88. Lipid whose specific test is the Furter-Meyer test:

a. tocopherol c. sphingomyelin

b. retinol d. cerebroside

88
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A

89. Precipitate of ___________ indicates the presence of phospholipids in the lipid sample:

a. ammonium phosphomolybdate c. phosphorous triiodide

b. phosphorous periodate d. phospho-ammonium sulfate complex

89
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B

90. The ff. are glycolipids except:

a. globosides c. gangliosides

b. phosphatides d. cerebrosides

90
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B

91. The parent compound of phosphoslipids:

a. glycerol c. ethanolamine

b. phosphatidic acid d. none of the above

91
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D

92. A non-pentose sugar which is also positive for Tollen' sphloroglucinol test:

a. galactose c. fructose

b. glucose d. cellobiose

92
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C

93. The reagent present is Molisch test which is responsible for the dehydration reaction:

a. sodium carbonate c. sulfuric acid

b. magnesium stearate d. NaOH

93
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C

94. ID test to detect the presence of glycogen:

a. phloroglucinol c. iodine

b. molisch d. seliwanoff

94
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C

95. The only sugar that readily forms insoluble osazone crystals:

a. lactose c. mannose

b.sucrose d. sucrose

95
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D

96. Important structural material found in the exoskeletons of many lower animals:

a. chnondroitin c. hyaluronic acid

b. heparin d. chitin

96
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B

97. Hydrolysis of osazones produce:

a. phenylhydrazones c. sugars

b. ozones d. none of the above

97
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C

98. General term for a group of polysaccharides present in the primary cell wall:

a. xanthan c. pectin

b. mucilage d. carageenan

98
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C

99. Specific test for galactose, due to the formation of highly insoluble crystals:

a. phenylhydrazine test c. mucic acid

b. fermentation d. molisch

99
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A

100. Type of RNA which serves as template for the amino acid sequence being synthesized:

a. mRNA c. rRNA

b. tRNA d. none of the above

100
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B

101. Positive indication for Anthrone test:

a. purple ring c. effervescenve

b. blue-green color d. yellow ppt