D316 - CompTIA practice tests - Set 1 complete questions with expert solutions + rationales

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99 Terms

1
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In-plane switching (IPS)

uses crystals that rotate rather than twist. The main benefit is to deliver better color reproduction at a wider range of viewing angles.

2
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Twisted nematic (TN) crystals

twist or untwist in response to the voltage level. This is the earliest type of TFT technology and might still be found in budget displays.

3
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organic LED (OLED) display

a separate LED generates each pixel. OLED allows much better contrast ratios and allows the display to be thinner, lighter, and consume less power

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Vertical alignment (VA)

uses crystals that tilt rather than twist or rotate. This technology supports a wide color gamut and the best contrast-ratio performance.

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A video gamer is looking to buy a new monitor that has great response time, quality, and brightness while also being cost-effective. What monitor technology would best fit the gamer's needs?

IPS

6
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A technician set up a new desktop for a small industrial facility. However, the old dot-matrix printer is unable to connect to it. What kind of interface card should be purchased to connect the printer to the new desktop?

Serial Interface

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A technician set up a new security system that uses a mobile device app to unlock doors. What technology enables a mobile device to communicate with another and can be used for store purchases or security access?

NFC

8
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An engineer traveled to a new location that does not have wireless connectivity yet. What cell phone technology could they use to connect the laptop to the internet?

Hotspot

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A user had a 6-year-old inkjet printer set up, but the cable connected to the laptop broke. What cable did the user use to connect the printer to the laptop?

USB

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USB

is the standard means of connecting most peripheral devices to a computer.

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Serial

is one of the oldest and simplest computer interfaces. While not many mobile devices have hardware serial ports, the software serial port is often used for programming and connectivity with some types of peripheral devices.

12
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A small industrial facility has an old dot-matrix printer. A support engineer replaced an older computer and needs to hook up the dot-matrix printer to it. However, it does not have the correct port. What interface does the old printer have?

Serial interface

13
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A user sets up a mobile app on their mobile phone to gain access to the company's secured premises. What technology is the user employing on their mobile phone for security access?

NFC

14
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NFC

is a peer-to-peer version of RFID; that is, an NFC device can work as both tag and reader to exchange information with other NFC devices.

15
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What basic function of productivity or communication apps allows for saving phone numbers, emails, and other data?

Contacts

16
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A small company was denied cyber insurance because they only use passwords to authenticate. What could the company enable to allow their cyber insurance to get approved?

MFA

17
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A technical support engineer is preparing a couple of the companies' remote locations for a backup in case their cable internet drops due to bad weather. What could the engineer purchase for these locations as a backup?

Hotspot

18
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A company switched cellular carriers and realized their existing cell phones are not compatible because the phones use a SIM card. What cellular standard does the cellular carrier not support?

GSM

19
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A sales rep from a wireless provider emailed the point of contact at a company to inform them that any of their older cellular or hotspot devices will no longer work, as they are turning off older cellular towers. What wireless technology might the sales rep be referring to?

3G

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A new phone was shipped out to a user, but it is not connecting to the cellular carrier. The support technician told the user to call *228 to resolve the issue. What would this do to resolve the issue?

PRL

21
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Older cellular devices may not have the capability of installing the Outlook app. However, these devices still have an email application that a user can set up manually. What functionality of Exchange or Office 365 would allow those applications to connect to the email server?

Active Snyc

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ActiveSync

is a technology that allows email applications to connect to an Exchange server or Office 365 service. Unlike the Outlook application that uses the Autodiscover record to populate settings automatically, many mail apps will rely on the manual configuration of the ActiveSync settings.

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Microsoft 365

is the subscription that allows for Office application installs, Windows licensing, and other Office 365 services.

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Office 365 E1

is an enterprise subscription expanding identity and security features of the Office 365 environment.

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Office 365 Business

is a specifically tailored license of Office 365 for small businesses and does not bundle a Windows license.

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A small company is looking to manage its devices and email subscriptions under one license per user. What kind of Office license would allow for a Windows license as well as an email license?

Microsoft 365

27
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When advising a company on configuring systems, the administrator wants to provide better information about network device status and how to monitor them in a client manual. Which of the following is the correct protocol that maintains a database containing statistics related to the activity of devices for review?

Simple network management protocol (SNMP)

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Simple network management protocol (SNMP)

is a framework for the management and monitoring of network devices. SNMP requires a Syslog agent that maintains a management information base (MIB) database. MIB holds statistics relating to the activity of the device.

29
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A client connects to an IMAP server over port TCP/143, but this port is unsecure. Instead, the client wants a secure connection established using Transport Layer Security (TLS). What is the default port for the secure POP3/IMAP?

TCP port 993 or 995

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The default ports for a secure connection are either

transport control protocol (TCP) port 993 (IMAPS) or 995 (POP3S), depending on the mail access protocol in use (IMAP or POP).

31
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During a company meeting, a technician scribbled some notes about a firewall configuration on a whiteboard. The technician has listed only the port numbers 25 and 587. What is the purpose of these protocols that use these ports?

The ports are for message relay between SMTP servers to submit secure and unsecure messages for delivery.

32
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A top-level domain (i.e., .com) falsely represents the top of the Domain Name System (DNS) hierarchy. Why is this considered false?

The DNS uses root servers at the hierarchy top, represented by a trailing dot at the end of a fully qualified domain name (FQDN), ensuring a unique host name.

33
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Authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) allows switches and access points to hold directory information to authenticate clients as they connect to the network. Which protocol would the AAA server use if it wanted to communicate with the directory service?

LDAP

34
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The AAA server uses Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

to communicate with the directory service (Active Directory) from an access point with no configured user account credentials, and it cannot decrypt any authentication traffic.

35
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An HTTPS application is secured using the SSL/TLS protocol but should use a different port for unencrypted HTTP. Which port should unencrypted HTTP use?

TCP/80

36
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A client wishes to download some files from home to upload onto the company's website. Which ports would establish a connection for the client to achieve this?

TCP/20, TCP/21

37
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The IT department is setting up for outsourced management of their client firms. The IT department has asked a server administrator to configure a Linux server and accept remote terminal connections from clients without using passwords, along with encrypted terminal emulations. How does the administrator set up this access?

-Use a Secure Shell (SSH) connection.

-Use an Open Secure Shell (OpenSSH) connection

38
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The network administrator is configuring a network attached storage (NAS) appliance. What file sharing protocol should the administrator use to allow access to Windows, Linux, and Apple macOS clients?

SMB

39
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The SMB

that implements Windows File/Printer Sharing is specifically for use on local networks only. Therefore, allowing access from the internet would be a security risk.

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What network protocol is obsolete and should be disabled on most networks as it poses a significant security risk?

NetBIOS

41
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NetBIOS

is obsolete and only required if the network must support file sharing for Windows versions earlier than Windows 2000.

42
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A client wishes to upload and download a few files from the network server. The client wants to upload some of the files to a website. Which ports would establish an active connection?

TCP/20 and TCP/21

43
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All PC motherboards have a built-in 1000BASE-T compatible adapter to establish connectivity with the Ethernet. What other devices connect to different types of Ethernets, such as fiber optics?

Modem, NIC, and SOHO Router

44
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The company network specialist assisted a customer with a full fiber connection terminated to an optical network terminal (ONT). Unfortunately, during some construction work on the building, the IT department disconnected the customer's router, and the patch cable is now missing. The customer thinks the cable is fiber-optic since the service is "full fiber." What type of cable does the network specialist need to locate?

An RJ45 unshielded twisted pair (UTP) patch cable

45
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Either electrical signaling establishes Ethernet communications over copper twisted pair cable or pulses of light transmitted over fiber optic cable. Where is the physical connection to the cable made in the computer using a transceiver port?

NIC

46
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A network administrator sets up a high-speed, long-range Asymmetrical DSL (ADSL) router/modem for a client. Unfortunately, the vendor did not include a list of the box contents and the instructions. What type of cable does the administrator need to connect the router's interface?

An RJ11-terminated patch cord over 300m long

47
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A network administrator can configure a small office home office (SOHO) router to provide an IPv4 address configuration to hosts without further administrator attention. A technician wrote some notes about IPv4 addresses used in various networks associated with the company support tickets. The technician assigned one of the addresses to the WAN interface of a SOHO router that requires troubleshooting. Which of these addresses must it be?

52.165.16.254

48
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A network administrator is completing an installation as part of a team. Another group cabled the wall ports but left the ends of the cables bundled in the network closet. What additional infrastructure will the network administrator require to complete this installation?

A switch and a patch panel

49
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Cloud services require the rapid provisioning and deprovisioning of server instances and networks. These components must be fully accessible to scripting, which brought about software-defined networking (SDN). According to the definition by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF), the principal innovation of SDN is to do what?

To insert a control layer between the application and infrastructure layers

50
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Another group has cabled wall ports to a patch panel during a previous construction. Now, the company network administrator is completing the remaining network installation as part of a team effort, and it will require additional infrastructure to complete this installation. What does the network administrator need to finish the network?

A switch

51
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The TIA/EIA-568 standard defines two methods for terminating twisted pairs: T568A or T568B. In T568A, pin 1 is wired to green/white, pin 2 is wired to green, pin 3 is wired to orange/white, and pin 6 is wired to orange. In T568B, the position of the green and orange pairs swap over so that orange terminates to 1 and 2, while green terminates to 3 and 6. What is the reason for this specific standard?

To use the same termination method consistently to support a Gigabit Ethernet or an upgrade to an optical network terminal

52
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A network administrator is expanding the company network with new settings and requirements for switches, VLANs, and IP subsets. What is the purpose of what the administrator is doing?

To divide the VLAN into multiple secure broadcast domains through managed switches, allowing additional remote access via VPNs

53
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A network administrator plans to install a network of wireless access points with power supplied over data cabling. Each access point requires a 20W power supply. What version of Power over Ethernet (PoE) must the switch support to fulfill this requirement?

PoE++/4PPoE (802.3bt)

PoE+ (802.3at)

54
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Which hardware networking device implements Ethernet cabling and ports to repeat transmission from one device to another as a concentrator function instead of the outdated hub?

A switch, a firewall, and a router/modem

55
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What device uses an embedded adapter to forward traffic through hardware ports between public and private network segments?

SOHO Router, switch, and firewall

56
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Some products are known to use the combined throughput of all radios. For example, the AX6000 claims nominal rates of 1,148 Mbps on the 2.4 GHz radio and 4,804 Mbps over 5 GHz. This type is an example of what?

A device for Wi-Fi 6 that can operate on both bands

57
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Which system works out a device's location by triangulating its proximity to other radio sources through identifying and tracking objects using special tags?

RFID

58
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What is the difference between licensed and unlicensed when using wireless technology to configure a bridge between two networks

-Unlicensed means the operator uses a public frequency that anyone can use.

-Licensed means the operator purchased exclusive rights to a band in a given location

59
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A network administrator is assessing standards compatibility for a Wi-Fi network. Most employees have mobile devices with single-band 2.4 GHz radios. Which Wi-Fi standards work in this band?

Wifi 4 (802.11n)

Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax)

60
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Wifi 6

works in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands, but the 5 GHz standard is less effective at penetrating solid surfaces and does not support the maximum ranges achieved with 2.4 GHz standards.

61
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The network operator is trying to minimize the potential for conflicts in an unlicensed power output but knows regulatory requirements limit them. Gain measures a wireless signal's power. What is gain, and how is it measured?

Gain is the amount of boost that occurs in a focused antenna signal, measured in dBi.

62
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The network supervisor plans to predominantly use the 5 GHz band for an open plan office network. However, the business owner has heard that this has a shorter range and thinks the network supervisor should use the 2.4 GHz band. Why should the 5 GHz band be preferred over the 2.4 GHz band in this case?

-The chances of overlap are high on a 2.4 GHz band, increasing the risk of interference from other products.

-On a 2.4 GHz network, there is not enough space for separate networks.

-Regulations on power and dynamic frequency selection (DFS) prevent signals from interfering with other nearby installations in a 5 GHz band.

63
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The network specialist sets up a long-range fixed wireless installation and operates on a public frequency without a license. Is this legal?

Yes. Installations may use an unlicensed spectrum but cannot exceed the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP) defined from regulations.

64
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During a meeting, the network supervisor argued that they should use a 5 GHz band in their new open-plan office setting, but the owner heard that the 2.4 GHz band is the one to use since it has a shorter range. Who is right and why?

-The supervisor is correct. A 5 GHz band power's regulations and DFS prevents signals from interfering.

-The supervisor is correct. A 2.4 GHz network does not have enough space for separate networks.

65
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Unlicensed spectrum refers to the operator using a public frequency band, such as 900 MHz or which band(s)?

Both 2.4 and 5 GHz

66
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The Unlicensed National Information Infrastructure (U-NII) sub-bands

form the 20 MHz channels used in the 5 GHz frequency band.

67
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An IPv6 address is 128-bits, divided into two main parts. The first 64 bits and the second 64 bits are known as what?

Network ID, Interface ID

68
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What method of network addressing provides automatic address allocation, is less prone to errors, and requires less administration time?

Dynamic addressing

69
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A class B IPv4 host configured with a private IP address will use what mechanisms to facilitate access to the internet? (

-NAT

-Proxy device

70
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IPv6, designed to replace IPv4, has proven challenging to implement in transition. Hosts and routers that can operate on IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously are called what?

Dual stack

71
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Why would hosts NOT need to be configured with a default gateway in an IPv6 implementation with Stateless Address Auto Configuration (SLAAC)?

ND allows hosts to discover a router and perform interface address querying functions.

72
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Often described as a hybrid fiber coax (HFC) broadband connection, what type of service combines a fiber optic core network with copper coaxial links to the customer premises?

Cable

73
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What network communication type, which often utilizes fiber or coaxial, supports downlink speeds of up to 38 Mbps in North America and 50 Mbps in Europe, with uplink speeds of up to 27 Mbps?

Wireless internet service providers (WISPs)

74
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What is a drawback of high geostationary orbit satellite internet access that is NOT a drawback of cellular service?

Increased latency

75
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A wireless internet service provider (WISP) uses ground-based fixed access wireless technology for long-range, low latency connectivity. The WISPs utilize directional antennas to bridge between the customer and the service provider networks. What is one disadvantage of a WISP?

Line of sight

76
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Wireless communication utilizes air as its data transfer medium. When communicating with electrical signals or pulses of light, what standard do cable-based copper and fiber local area networks (LANs) use?

IEEE 802.3

77
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In what standard will client devices connect to an access point in infrastructure mode?

IEEE 802.11

78
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A system administrator is troubleshooting the company's only IEEE 802.11 network. What mode are most client devices configured to connect to the network via an access point (AP)?

Infrastructure

79
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An organization has tasked a network administrator with establishing a means of communicating with the new Internet of Things (IoT) smart meters. These IoT devices cover a large area with a limited line of sight. What would be the best solution for the network administrator to implement?

Cellular

80
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Cellular radio networking communications

will reach further distances, regardless of line-of-sight issues, using mobile devices. It also enables the connectivity of the Internet of Things (IoT) devices, such as smart energy meters.

81
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While a toner probe sends a signal through a wire bundle to identify a cable and may come as part of a cable tester, what ability would the cable tester provide the user?

To test patch cords

82
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A loopback plug is a simple tool that a technician could quickly build using a scrap cable and a connector, enabling an administrator to create a looped data signal. Why would a network technician want to use a loopback plug?

To test network interface cards (NICs)

83
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A system administrator has an 802.3 compliant network interface card (NIC) that needs testing. What could best enable the system administrator to test this NIC, including the switch port?

Loopback plug

84
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While validating the Ethernet network efficiency, the network administrator finds many lost or damaged frames. What tool does the network administrator use to identify the dropped or damaged frames?

Network tap

85
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An access point (AP) is configured as a bridge to forward communications between new wireless clients and the existing wired network. The network security technician needs to ensure no unauthorized APs are in the vicinity. What tool could the technician use to validate that no other APs are in the area?

Wifi Analyzer

86
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Wifi Analyzers

measure the wireless signal strength to determine the best wireless channel layout, collect network statistics, troubleshoot the network's performance, and detect other access points in the vicinity.

87
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GSM signal monitors or cell tower analyzers

can analyze cellular radio signals, which use different frequencies than those used for Wi-Fi networks.

88
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When the network installers install permanent cable, what tool will terminate wall ports and patch panels using insulation displacement connectors (IDCs)?

Punchdown tool

89
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What do Sender Policy Framework (SPF), DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM), and Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) provide for a domain?

Spam management

90
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DNS resource records allow name servers to resolve queries for names and services hosted in the domain. In an IPv4 network, what record type maps IPv4 to host names?

A

91
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The Domain-based Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) framework utilizes the Sender Policy Framework (SPF) or the DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM), or both, to provide what?

A more robust policy mechanism for senders

92
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An organization has tasked a system administrator with installing a spam gateway to verify the authenticity of mail servers and filter spoofed and malicious messages. What framework utilizes either the Sender Policy Framework (SPF), the DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM), or both to specify a robust mechanism for authentication failures?

Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC)

93
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When planning to set up a virtual LAN (VLAN), the network administrator must prepare for each VLAN, configuring them with their own what?

IP address range and Subnet address

94
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What type of TXT record uses cryptography to validate the source server of a given email to help recipient servers reject spoofed messages and spam?

DKIM

95
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What term refers to the range of addresses that a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server can offer to client hosts in a particular subnet?

Scope

96
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A virtual LAN (VLAN) can improve security by monitoring and filtering network traffic. What is another benefit of implementing a VLAN?

Reduction in excessive network traffic

97
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When reviewing the mail exchange (MX) record for IPv4 and IPv6, the host names identified in an MX record must have what other type of record associated with them?

A and AAAA

98
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Records used to identify an email server for the domain so that other servers can send messages to it are what type of record?

Mail Exchange (MX)

99
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A network technician is responsible for an extensive enterprise network. The network has hundreds of hosts on the same broadcast domain, reducing performance. The technician needs to find a solution to improve security and mitigate excessive broadcast traffic. What is the solution?

VLAN