Pharm exam 3 meds

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Last updated 10:41 PM on 3/31/26
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103 Terms

1
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what is the mode of action of penicillin G?

weakens cell wall synthesis

2
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What life-threatening adverse effect is most associated with penicillin?

allergic reaction

3
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Which class of antibiotics should be avoided or monitored closely when administered with the Penicillin group (Penicillin G, Amoxicillin, Piperacillin)?

aminoglycosides

4
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Which patient should be monitored closely when given penicillin G?

renal impaired patients and it is the least toxic

5
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What differentiates penicillin G from other penicillin drug?

it is the least toxic

6
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What is the therapeutic effect of Penicillin G?

bactericidal against numerous gram positive and gram negative bacteria

7
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What is the therapeutic effect of Amoxicillin?

increase activity against certain gram negative bacteria

8
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what are the adverse effects associated with amoxicillin?

rash, diarrhea

9
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what are the adverse effects associated with piperacillin?

allergic reaction, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, superinfection

10
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what is the therapeutic effect of piperacillin?

it is used against beta lactamase inhibitors

11
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Piperacillin is always formulated with which specific agent to protect it from beta-lactamase inhibitors?

tazobactam

12
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To which generation of cephalosporins does Cefazolin belong, and what is its primary action?

first generation and bind to penicillin protein to disrupt cell wall synthesis

13
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what is the therapeutic effect of cefazolin?

prophylaxis against surgical infection

14
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what drugs and substances should be avoided when taking cefazolin?

alcohol, drugs that promotes bleeding, calcium, ceftriaxone, probenecid

15
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what is a unique aspect of cefazolin?

rarely used in active infection and can be destroyed by beta lactamase

16
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what cephalosporin generation is ceftaroline and its therapeutic effect?

fifth generation and treats MRSA

17
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What are the major side effects associated with Cephalosporins?

allergy, bleeding, reduction of PT, vitamin K interference, maculopapular rash

18
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what are drug interactions associated with cephalosporins?

alcohol, probenecid, drugs that promote bleeding, calcium, ceftriaxone

19
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what unique about ceftriaxone compared to other cephalosporins?

it can penetrate the blood brain barrier into CSF

20
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what is the therapeutic effect of ceftriaxone?

used to treat several infections

21
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What is the mode of action of macrolides (tetracycline and demecycline)

inhibits protein synthesis

22
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What are the adverse effects associated with tetracycline?

GI irritation, effect on bones and teeth, superinfection, hepatotoxicity, renal toxicity, photosensitivity

23
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Which foods and supplements must a patient avoid while taking Tetracycline Hcl?

calcium, milk products, iron supplements, magnesium laxatives and antacids

24
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What are two specific education for a patient taking Tetracycline Hcl regarding meals and drug interactions?

don’t take with meals and can increase digoxin levels

25
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what is the therapeutic effect of tetracycline?

acne, peptic ulcer, lyme disease, H. Pylori

26
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which two patient populations must absolutely avoid taking Demeclocycline?

patient women and children under 8

27
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What are the adverse effects associated with Demeclocycline?

renal damage, tooth discoloration, hepatotoxicity, diarrhea

28
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Which macrolide is frequently used as an alternative for patients who have a documented allergy to penicillin?

Erythromycin

29
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What are the two life-threatening cardiac complications associated with Azithromycin?

QT prolongation and sudden cardiac death

30
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Which laboratory values or drug levels might increase when a patient is taking Erythromycin?

INR, theophylline and digoxin

31
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What is the therapeutic effect of Erythromycin?

used to treat whooping cough, diphtheria, chlamydia and M. pneumoniae

32
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which drugs can interact with Erythromycin?

CY450 drugs

33
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Which drugs should be avoided when taking Azithromycin to prevent cardiac issues?

antipsychotics, antihypertensive, sedations and calcium channel blockers

34
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what is the mode of action of aminoglycosides?

bactericidal by disrupting protein synthesis

35
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What is common adverse effect associated with aminoglycosides?

nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

36
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When monitoring a patient on Gentamicin, at what specific times should the peak and trough levels be drawn?

peak level 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration

37
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Which three classes of antibiotics are considered "beneficial" when used in combination with Gentamicin?

penicillin, vancomycin and cephalosporin

38
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Patients with Myasthenia should avoid which aminoglycoside?

gentamycin

39
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Which drugs require close monitoring when given with Gentamycin?

furosemide, vancomycin

40
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Which aminoglycoside is reserved as a "last resort drug" to handle microbial resistance?

Amikacin

41
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what is unique adverse effect of Amikacin from other aminoglycosides?

neuromuscular blockade, blood dysrasias

42
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Which drugs require close monitoring when given with Amikacin?

NMBAS

43
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what is the therapeutic effect of aminoglycosides?

treat serious infections caused by aerobic gram negative bacilli

44
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What are the therapeutic effects of Sulfamethoxazole and Trimethoprim?

used to treat UTI, otitis media and bronchitis

45
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Which three groups should NOT receive Sulfamethoxazole?

pregnant, breastfeeding women and children under 2 months

46
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What is the mode of action of sulfonamides drugs?

inhibit the synthesis of folate

47
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What are the adverse effects associated with Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim?

Steven-Johnson, kernicterus, renal damage, hemolytic anemia, hyperkalemia

48
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What drugs should be monitored or avoided with sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim?

warfarin, sulfurs, ACE, ARB and potassium supplements

49
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what is the mode of action of Quinolones?

disrupt DNA replication and cell division

50
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What is the most unique and severe musculoskeletal adverse effect associated with Ciprofloxacin and Levofloxacin?

tendon rupture

51
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what are the adverse effects associated with Ciprofloxacin?

GI upset, dizziness, headache, phototoxicity, candida infection

52
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what is the therapeutic effect of Quinolones drugs?

used to treat respiratory infection, UTI, skin and anthrax

53
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Which products should a patient avoid consuming at the same time as Ciprofloxacin?

dairy products, antacids, iron and zinc salt

54
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what is the therapeutic effect of Daptomycin?

MRSA

55
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What are the side effects of Linezolid?

myelosuppression, GI upset, neuropathy

56
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what drugs should be avoided with Linezolid?

MAO and SSRI

57
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what are the adverse effect associated with Vancomycin?

renal failure, ototoxicity, red man syndrome, tachycardia, hypotension

58
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what is the therapeutic effect of vancomycin?

MRSA, staphylococcus epidermis, c-diff

59
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What are the "infusion reactions" a nurse should expect when starting Amphotericin B?

fever, chills, nausea, rigors, headache

60
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what are the adverse effects associated with Amphotericin B?

nephrotoxicity, hypokalemia, bone marrow suppression

61
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Which three drug classes should be avoided or used with extreme caution when a patient is receiving Amphotericin B?

aminoglycosides, cephalosporin, NSAID

62
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What is the most important nursing intervention to minimize kidney damage while a patient is on Amphotericin B?

administer 1 L of normal saline

63
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What supplement is often prescribed with Isoniazid (INH) to prevent peripheral neuropathy?

vitamin B6

64
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What are the three primary adverse effects of Isoniazid?

hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, optic neuritis

65
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What education should be given to patient on Isoniazid and Ethambutol?

report any changes in vision

66
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Which laboratory value should be monitored for a patient on Pyrazinamide due to the risk of non-gouty polyarthralgia?

uric acid

67
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what are the side effects of pyrazinamide?

hepatoxicity, joint pain, photosensitivity, dermatitis

68
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What are the adverse effects associated with Rifampin?

hepatoxicity, discoloration of body fluid, GI upset

69
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Which four major drug classes have decreased effectiveness when taken with Rifampin

P450 drugs, oral contraceptives, warfarin, HIV drugs

70
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What should the nurse teach the patient about their body fluids while on Rifampin?

it causes orange bodily fluids

71
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What is the primary contraindication for the use of Rifampin during pregnancy?

it is tetratogenic

72
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What is the specific requirement for a patient to be treated with Maraviroc?

age 16 or older infected with CCR5 HIV 1

73
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How does Ibalizumab specifically function to prevent HIV from infecting a host cell?

it is post attachment inhibitor that blocks HIV virus attachment

74
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What is the specific clinical requirement or indication for a patient to be treated with Ibalizumab?

it is used to treat multidrug resistant HIV

75
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Which four laboratory values must a nurse monitor for changes (increases or decreases) in a patient taking Ibalizumab?

increased creatinine, bilirubin, lipase and WBC

76
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What is the drug class of Efavirenz?

NNRTI

77
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What are the adverse effects associated with Efavirenz?

dizziness, drowsiness, vivid dreams, hallucinations, teratogenicity, rash

78
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What is the specific requirement for birth control for a patient prescribed Efavirenz?

a barrier and hormonal method

79
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Why is Efavirenz effective at reducing HIV levels specifically within the Central Nervous System?

it can cross the blood-brain barrier

80
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What is the primary therapeutic use for the combination drug Tenofovir/Emtricitabine (Truvada)?

used to treat HIV and HBV

81
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What specific physical side effect is associated with the Emtricitabine component of this drug?

hyperpigmentation of palms and soles

82
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What are the adverse effects of Tenofovir/

decreased bone mineralization, renal toxicity

83
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What two supplements are recommended for a patient taking this medication to counteract its effect on bone density?

calcium and vitamin D supplements

84
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What is the specific drug class of Enfuvirtide, and what is its mode of action?

fusion inhibitor and blocks entry into CD4 cells

85
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What are the major side effects of Enfuvirtide?

injection site reaction, pneumonia, hypersensitivity, respiratory distress, Guillain barre

86
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What is the specific drug class of Maraviroc, and what is its mode of action?

CCR5 antagonist that blocks entry of HIV into CD4 cells

87
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Which specific drug class should be avoided when a patient is taking Maraviroc?

Avoid CY3A5 drugs

88
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What are the common physical side effects associated with Maraviroc?

cough, dizziness, fever, abdominal pain, musculoskeletal symptoms, respiratory infection

89
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How does Dolutegravir function to stop HIV?

terminates integration of HIV into DNA

90
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What adverse effects are associated with Dolutegravir (DTG)?

elevated liver enzyme, hyperglycemia, insomnia, headache

91
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Why are minerals restricted when taking this medication?

they can decrease drug levels

92
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What is the specific requirement for timing when a patient takes minerals (Iron, calcium, magnesium) with Dolutegravir?

they must be taken 2 hours before or 6 hours after

93
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What is the specific drug class of Darunavir (DRV), and what is its mode of action?

protease inhibitor that prevents HIV maturation

94
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What is the primary therapeutic goal when using Darunavir in combination with NRTIs?

to reduce viral load to undetectable levels

95
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Which two specific enzyme-related drug classes should be avoided when a patient is taking Darunavir?

CY3A4 and CYP2C9 drugs

96
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Darunavir can increase the levels of which specific classes of cardiovascular medications?

calcium channel blockers, beta blockers, quinidine

97
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100
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