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83 Terms

1
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Which artery provides blood flow to the floor of the mouth?

Lingual artery

2
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Which one of these principal fiber groups extends from cementum

coronally to bone?

Oblique fibers

3
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Gingivitis results from which of the following?

Ulceration at the sulcular base of the pocket

4
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You find an area of decay on the buccal surface of tooth #30, near

the gingival margin. What G.V. Black classification of caries is this

suspicious area of decay?

class V

5
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Which color of extrinsic stain is associated with inhaling metallic

dust, most likely from occupational exposure?

bluish green

6
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What is the mechanism of action for fluoride rinses?

Retained in the saliva and dental plaque to reduce caries

7
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Demineralization for enamel occurs when the pH drops below what

critical level?

4.5-5.5

8
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Which type of bacteria produces higher amounts of acid from

sugars than other bacterial types

Streptococcus mutans

9
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Which bacteria colonize the mouth of humans a few hours after

birth?

Streptococcus salivarius

10
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Which one of the following is NOT one of the most common

viridans organism?

Staphylococcus aureus - They are major producers of proteins called leukocidins

that destroy phagocytes.

11
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Which bacteria is NOT a microaerophilic bacteria?

Staphylococcus

12
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In which of the following phases does bacterial growth occur the

most rapidly?

log phase

13
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Which type of microorganism is the most important pathogen for

periodontal disease?

Porphyromonas gingivalis

14
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Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is an immediate

anaphylactic reaction?

Type I --> This type of hypersensitivity reaction requires previous

exposure to an allergen and is an immediate anaphylactic reaction.

15
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Which one of these symptoms is found in a diabetic patient that is

hyperglycemic?

Fruity breath - Breath with a fruity odor results from ketosis and

is a symptom of a hyperglycemic diabetic patient.

16
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Which one of these sugar alcohols is made from cellulose

products?

Xylitol

17
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Which of the following minerals is a macromineral?

sodium

18
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Which of the following lesions is a calcification within a gland or

duct?

Sialolithiasis

19
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Which of the following is the drug of choice for acute asthmatics?

Albuterol

20
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Which type of cleaning agent should NOT be used as a surface

disinfectant due to its toxic fumes?

Glutaraldehydes

21
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sterilization of metal instruments

dry heat

22
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vertical overlap

overbite

23
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An 18-year-old female patient was previously using chlorhexidine.

What color stain can you expect to find on her teeth?

yellow-brown stain

24
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Where is fluoride rapidly absorbed?

stomach and small intestine

25
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Which type of fluoride toxicity has symptoms that begin within 30

minutes of ingestion?

Acute fluoride toxicity

26
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If a patient has large hands, which type of oral aid would best be

recommended for them to remove debris from their mouth?

Floss holder

27
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Which of the following types of instrument handles decreases

tactile sensitivity?

solid

28
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Which mouth rinsing agent has a side effect of a burning

sensation that is associated with the alcohol content?

essential oils

29
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Which type of mouth rinse should be avoided if your patient uses

tobacco products?

essential oils

30
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Which bacterium is associated with root caries?

Actinomyces viscosus

31
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If the first 10 patients of the day were asked to fill out a

questionnaire about previous dental experiences this would be an

example of what type of sample?

Convenience sample

32
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Which stage of learning is the patient at when the correct

information is obtained but the information lacks personal meaning?

awareness

33
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At which stage does the dental lamina grow into the connective

tissue at 20 different places to form the primary teeth?

Bud stage

34
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During which week(s) does the palate form?

6-12 weeks

35
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Which stage of anesthesia does involuntary movement begin?

stage 2

36
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How many bones does the orbit consist of?

7 bones

37
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Which muscle pulls the lateral borders of the tongue downward?

Hyoglossus

38
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During what weeks does the palate develop while in utero?

7-11 weeks

39
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Where is the insertion of the lateral pterygoid muscle?

TMJ disc and neck of the mandibular condyle

40
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What function does the lateral pterygoid serve?

Depress the mandible

41
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Which tooth is most likely to exhibit lingual caries?

Max LI

42
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Kaposi's sarcoma is also referred to as what viral, ulcerative

lesion?

Human Herpes Virus 8 (HHV-8)

43
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What type of salivary lesion results from an obstruction of the

Wharton's duct?

Ranula

44
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Which of the following refers to exudates containing a large

amount of pus?

Purulent

45
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Which tooth has the largest width of attached gingiva?

Maxillary anteriors

46
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Which of the following types of epithelial tissues line the oral

cavity?

Stratified squamous

47
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Which radiographic landmark appears as a radiolucent area in the

mandibular molar region below the mylohyoid ridge?

Submandibular fossa

48
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The essential fatty acids that must be derived from the diet are:

Linoleic and alpha-linoleic acid

49
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Good sources of vitamin D include all of the following EXCEPT:

Blueberries

50
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One of the fat-soluble vitamins involved in coagulation is:

Vitiamin K

51
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Products that contain live microorganisms in sufficient numbers

that alter intestinal microflora and promote intestinal microbial

balance are known as

Probiotics

52
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The USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans advise:

Limiting total fat intake to 20 to 35 percent of daily calories

53
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The average American consumes approximately how much

sodium per day?

3,400 mg

54
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All of the following are potentially modifiable risk factors for

osteoporosis EXCEPT:

Chronically low intake of vitamin C and vitamin B6

55
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____________ is the body\'s primary source of energy.

Glucose

56
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What is the emulsifying agent that is produced by the liver, stored

in the gall bladder and aids in fat digestion and absorption?

Bile

57
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Dietary fiber is an indigestible _________ that serves separately

as a body regulatory agent.

Carbohydrate

58
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This type of carbohydrate is a vital emergency fuel for heart

muscle:

Glycogen

59
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_____________ is the set of metabolic pathways that breaks down

molecules into smaller units to release energy.

Catabolism

60
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The sum of body processes that change our food energy from the

three energy nutrients is called

Metabolism

61
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Where does most of the hydrolysis of triglycerides occur?

Small intestine

62
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Dietary intake of nutrients that meets the needs of almost all

healthy individuals is

RDA

63
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Digestion in the small intestine is where pancreatic amylase

converts the carbohydrate starch into:

Maltose and sucrose

64
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Which of the following is the essential base for all metabolic

processes?

Water

65
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Ischemic strokes are the most commonly occurring form of

stroke.

true

66
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Which type of stroke is caused by a clot forming in an artery that

is already narrow?

Thrombotic

67
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Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by

a viral infection?

HPV

68
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Which two tissues are formed by the same part of the tooth bud?

Dentin and pulp

69
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At the cervical line, a cross section of the maxillary canine would

show

An oval shape with a slightly wider labial surface

70
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The genetic information of the cell is located in which of the

following structures?

Nucleus and nucleoid

71
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What does the nucleus and the nucleoid have in common?

they contain DNA

72
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The TMJ structure consists of:

Two synovial compartments

73
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Which of the following is not a risk factor for caries in children

with special needs?

Bruxism

74
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You inform the family of a child with special needs that the

presence of gingival hyperplasia may put the child at risk for which of

the following

Severe gingivitis

75
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What is the most critical age of susceptibility to fluorosis of the

permanent teeth?

Between 15 and 30 months of age

76
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Which tooth is the most common for microdontia?

Max LI

77
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Which of the following is the only artery to carry deoxygenated

blood?

Pulmonary artery

78
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Which of the following is the best way to reduce patient dose to

radiation?

Film speed

79
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Which artery is typically used to take the blood pressure of a

healthy adult patient?

Brachial

80
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Your patient had a knee replacement one month ago. Today they

are in for localized scaling and root planing of teeth #2, 3, 18, and 30.

The patient is allergic to penicillin. What antibiotic premedication

should the patient take prior to their dental appointment?

2000 mg cephalexin one hour before procedure

81
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What is providing dental screenings an example of?

Beneficence --> This includes promoting the well-being of

individuals and the public. The "do good" examples like dental screenings

82
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83
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