ALU 101 book questions

Without a properly signed application, a life insurance contract can be considered to be which of the following?

A. invalid

B. inadmissible as evidence

C. Material representation

Answer Options: 1. A only is correct

2. A and B are correct

3. B and C are correct

4. A, B and C are correct

2

A procedure that uses high frequency sound waves to image soft tissue:

1. X-ray

2. fluoroscopy

3. Ultrasonography (US)

4. computed tomography (CT)

3

Procedures used to identify coronary artery disease include all of the follow Except:

1. electron beam computed tomography (EBCT)

2. myocardial perfusion scan

3. positron emission tomography (PET)

4. magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)

3

Test used to assist in identifying lung cancer include which of the following:

A. Chest x-ray

B. Computed tomography (CT) scan

C. bronchoscopy

Answer options: 1. B only is correct

2. A and C only are correct

3. B and C only are correct

4. A, B and C are correct

4

Describe the test used to diagnose brain and nervous system disorders.

CT, MRI, PET, Cistronagraphy

Describe the difference between invasive an non-invasive testing techniques.

Invasive punctures the skin, cuts deep

Which of the following are recorded during a sleep study?

A. body position

B. oxygen saturation

C. electroencephalogram

Answer Options: 1. A and B only are correct

2. A and C only are correct

3. B and C only are correct

4. A, B and C are correct

4

Obstructive sleep apnea is diagnosed by:

1. Plumonary angiography

2. pulmonary function test (PFTs)

3. polysomnography

4. bronchoscopy

3

List the endoscopic exams used to diagnose and treat abdominal pathology.

Colonoscopy and Endoscopy

List the common medical conditions often diagnosed by pelvic or transvaginal ultrasound.

pregnancy, cervical or uteral cancer

What are the most common measurements of pulmonary function (PFTs) seen in underwriting?

1. FVC (forced vital capacity

2. FEV (forced expiratory volume at 1 second

3. FEV/FVC ratio

4. diffusing capacity (DLCO)

A low body mass index (BMI) can be a marker for all of the following diseases Except:

1. cancer

2. anorexia nervosa

3. hypothyroidism

4. alcohol abuse

3

The maximum pressure achieved during a contraction of the heart is the:

1. systolic blood pressure

2. pulse pressure

3. diastolic blood pressure

4. atrial pressure

1

Which of the following statements regarding hypertension are correct?

A. Hypertension can lead to stroke

B. Mild hypertension can shorten life expectancy

C. Left ventricular hypertrophy can develop with uncontrolled hypertension

Answer Options: 1. A and B only are correct

2. A and C only are correct

3. B and C only are correct

4. A, B and C are correct

4

Name at least five classification of hypertension.

primary hypertension

secondary hypertension

white coat hypertension

systolic hypertension

pseudo hypertension (in elderly)

borderline hypertension

resistant hypertension (3 or more drugs)

Classes of drugs that can be used to treat hypertension include which of the following?

A. sulfonamides

B. calcium channel blockers

C. angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

Answer options 1. A only is correct

2. C only is correct

3. A and B only are correct

4. B and C only are correct

4

All of the following are potential complication of gastrointestinal surgery for obesity Except:

1. dumping syndrome

2. anemia

3. nutritional deficiencies

4. diabetes

4

Explain the difference between primary and secondary hypertension

primary is no identifying cause, secondary is caused by an underlying disease

What are some conditions that can cause chronic postural hypotension

Parkinsons, aortic stenosis, adverse effects of medication

The best test for monitoring blood sugar is the:

1. glucose tolerance test

2. random blood glucose

3. glycohemoglobin

4. fasting blood sugar

3

All of the following statement regarding ketoacidosis are correct Except:

1. It can result from uncontrolled type 1 diabetes

2. Its symptoms include dehydration and nausea

3. It leads to a hypoglycemic state

4. It is caused by excessive breakdown of fat molecules

3

1. The measure of a test's ability to detect individuals who have disease is:

1. Sensitivity

2. Reliability

3. Specificity

4. Proficiency

1

1. Cholesterol is present in blood in a number of physiologically different lipid particles

1. HDL

2. ADL

3. LDL

4. VLDL

2

A positive urine cotinine test on an insurance exam can be caused by which of the following?

A. Nicotine Gum

B. Cigar use

C. Second hand smoke

D. Herbal Teas

Answer choices:

1. A, B, and D only

2. A and C only

3. A and D only

4. A, B and C only

4

Which is the biggest predictor of cardiac events and risks

1. Positive stress test

2. Metabolic Syndrome

3. A decreased ejection fraction

4. Hyperlipidemia

3

1. The presence of red blood cells in the urine is

1. Hematuria

2. Glycosuria

3. Proteinuria

4. Albuminuria

1

1. Which test is the gold standard for evaluation of diabetic risk?

1. Fructosamine

2. Insulin

3. Hb A1c

4. Fasting Blood Sugar

3

1. All of the following classes of drugs are used to control angina except:

1. Calcium channel blockers

2. Nitrates

3. Beta Blockers

4. Statins

1

A reversible defect on a cardiac imaging test indicates:

1. Myocardial ischemia

2. Left ventricular hypertrophy

3. A prior MI

4. A decreased ejection fraction

1

Asthma is a reversible airways disease

1. True

2. False

1 True

A measure of renal function is eGFR

1. True

2. False

1 True

1. An example of a "rescue" inhaler or short-acting inhaler is :

1. Steroid inhaler

2. Nasal spray

3. Albuterol

4. Nebulizer

3

Simple Renal Cysts:

a. Can cause reduced kidney function

b. Are more common as people age

c. Are a risk for polycystic kidney disease

Answer options:

1. All are correct

2. C is correct

3. B is correct

4. A is correct

3

A high TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone) reflects:

1. Hyperthyroid

2. Hypothyroid

2

A procedure that uses high frequency sound waves to image soft tissue is:

1. X-Ray

2. Fluroscopy

3. Ultrasonography

4. Computed Tomography

3

Obstructive Sleep Apnea is diagnosed by

1. Pulmonary angiography

2. Pulmonary function test

3. Polysomnography

4. Bronchoscopy

3

1. Procedures used to identify coronary artery disease include all of the following except:

a. Electron beam computed tomography

b. Myocardial perfusion scan

c. Computed tomography

d. Magnetic resonance angiography

Answer Options:

1. A, B and D only

2. B, C and D Only

3. A, C and D only

4. All of the above are correct

4

A low body mass index can be a marker for all of the following diseases except

1. Cancer

2. Anorexia nervosa

3. Hypothyroidism

4. Alcohol abuse

3

Complications of high blood pressure can include all of the following except:

1. Proteinuria

2. Cognitive impairment

3. Osteoarthritis

4. Arterial aneurysm

4

All of the following statements regarding Type II diabetes are correct except:

1. The body's cells are resistant to insulin

2. Onset is usually sudden

3. Many individuals are unaware they have the condition

4. Symptoms may include increased urination

2

Diabetes treatment options include all of the following except

1. Diet

2. Insulin injections

3. Blood transfusion

4. Pancreatic transplant

3

The best test for monitoring blood sugar is the:

1. Glucose tolerance test

2. Random blood glucose

3. Glycohemoglobin A1c

4. Fasting blood sugar

3

Ketoacidosis is a complication associated with:

1. Coronary artery disease

2. Hepatitis

3. Diabetes

4. Peptic Ulcer

3

Modifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis include all of the following except:

1. Family history

2. Smoking

3. Hypertension

4. Hyperlipidemia

1

Complications of diabetes can include which of the following:

a. Coronary Artery Disease

b. Retinopathy

c. Hepatitis

Answer Options:

1. A and B only

2. A and C only

3. B and C only

4. A, B and C

1

All of the following are layers of the heart wall except

1. Endocardium

2. Pericardium

3. Endometrium

4. Myocardium

3

An isolated alkaline phosphatase is not of concern

1. True

2. False

2

Which types of hepatitis may cause chronic disease?

a. Autoimmune

b. Hep a

c. Hep b

d. Alcoholic

e. Hep C

Answer Options:

1. B, c, e

2. A, b, c, e

3. A, c, d,e

4. all of the above

3

Cirrhosis is usually reversible with treatment.

1. True

2. False

2

Dysplasia is all of the following except:

1. An abnormal change in the size and shape of cells and their contents.

2. Has distinct microscopic feature common w/ cancer

3. Severe dysplasia can be a synonym for carcinoma in situ

4. Is an absolute increase in the number of cells

4

Which of these is not a layer of the heart wall:

1. Endometrium

2. Endocardium

3. Myocardium

4. Pericardium

1

Treatments for CAD include all of the following except:

1. Angioplasty

2. Bypass Surgery

3. Medical Therapy

4. Pneumonectomy

4

The best measure of renal function is:

1. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

2. Proteinuria

3. Blood urea nitrogen(BUN)

4. Specific gravity

1

Which of the following are predisposing factors of Non-Alcoholic Liver Disease:

1. Obesity

2. Diabetes

3. Age

4. All of the Above

4

Which of these is not an assessment of Activities of Daily living?

1. ADL

2. CDL

3. IADL

4. AADL

2

The gold standard test for diagnosing coronary artery disease (CAD) is:

1. an exercise tolerance test (ETT)

2. coronary angiography

3. thallium imaging

4. electron beam computed tomography (EBCT)

2

Modifiable risk factors for atheroclerosis include all of the following EXCEPT:

1. Family history

2. smoking

3. hypertension

4. diabetes

2

The MET level of an exercise EKG is determined by which of the following:

A. calories burned at rest

B. duration of exercise

C. protocol used

Answer Options: 1. A and B are correct

2. A and C only are correct

3. B and C only are correct

4. A, B, and C are correct

3

List four major risk factors for coronary artery disease.

1. age and gender

2. family history

3. hyper lipidemia (high LDL and HDL)

4. smoking

5. hypertension

6. diabetes mellitus

Define metabolic syndrome and explain why it is a risk factor for the development of coronary artery disease.

Having 3 of 5 criteria abdominal obesity, elevated triglycerides, low HDL, hypertension and insulin resistance.

All of the following are layers of the heart wall EXCEPT:

1. Endocardium

2. Pericardium

3. Endometruim

4. Myocardium

3

Medications that dilate the coronary arteries include which of the following?

A. Nitrates

B. Beta-Blockers

C. Calcium channel blockers

Answer options: 1. A only is correct

2. B only is correct

3. C only is correct

4. A, B and C are correct

1

All of the following are functions of the circulatory system EXCEPT to:

1. transport Oxygen

2. transport waste materials of cellular metabolism

3. propel blood through the body

4. raise and lower HDL colesterol

4

All of the following are measured on an exercise electrocardiogram EXCEPT:

1. blood pressure

2. exercise capacity

3. thickness of the left ventricle

4 EKG changes

3

An EBCT scan is used to:

1. calculate exercise tolerance

2. detect heart murmurs

3. detect deposits of calcium in coronary arterial walls

4. fracture plaque in an occluded coronary artery

3

The measure of a test's ability to detect individuals who have disease is:

1. sensitivity

2. reliability

3. specificity

4. proficiency

1

Elevations of both gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) and alkaline phosphatase (AP) are associated with:

1. pancreatitis

2. osteomyelitis

3. biliary obstruction

4. osteoporosis

3

A positive urine cotinine test result on an insurance exam can be caused by which of the following?

A nicotine gum

B. cigar use

C. second hand smoke

Answer Options: 1. A and B only are correct

2. A and C only are correct

3. B and C only are correct

4. A, B and C are correct

1

Discuss the differences between acute and chronic hepatitis, including causes, typical findings and possible outcomes.

Acute hepatitis can be caused by a viruses, acute is elevated from 3 to 10 time the upper limit of the normal reference. With acute, it will return to normal in less than six months.

Name the five serum enzymes that are used as indirect measures of liver pathology and diseases associate with their elevations.

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, also known as SGOT)

alanine aminotransferase (ALT also know as SGPT)

--AST and ALT hepatic disease and alcohol damage

gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT or GGTP)

--associated with biliary obstruction or inflammation. GGT only elevation is indicative and drug use.

lactate dehydroganase (LDH)

Alkaline phosphatase (AP) - bone disorder

Chronic hepatitis increases the risk of developing which of the following:

A fibrosis

B hepatocellular carcinoma

C Barrett's esophagus

Answer Option: 1. A only is correct

2. A and B only are correct

3. B and C only are correct

4. A, B and C are correct

2

The preseance of red blood cells in the urine is:

1 Hematuria

2. glycosuria

3. proteinuria

4. albuminuria

1

Name two test performed on the blood that are useful in identifying impaired glucose tolerance or diabetes and discuss the efficacy of each.

Fasting glucose Fruetosamine (blood sugar over a 2 week period) and A1C (over 120 days)

Name four test that can be performed on a urine sample and the value of each.

Urine Creatinine - 1 gram per day

Urine total protein - 150 mg/day

Urine glucose - 124 mg/dl

Urine leukocyte Esterase and Hemoblobin - blood in urine

Urine drug test and Urine Cotinine - negtive

Identify two tumor marker test that can be performed as part of an insurance exam and identify what disease implications might be suggested by each.

Prostate specific antigen (PSA) - prostate cancer

Carcinoebryonic antigen (CEA) - Produced by solid tumors

BRCA - Genetic, associated with breast cancer

In the US the primary cause of death for individuals between ages 5-24 is:

1. suicide

2. Seizures

3. diabetes

4. motor vehicle accidents

4

All of the following statements regarding elderly drivers in the US and Canada are correct EXCEPT:

1. The represent an increasing segment of the driving populations

2. Many elderly people drive safely

3. They are more likely to die in an auto accident than are teenage drivers.

4. Dementia in early stages should not impair driving significantly.

3

Underwriting tools that can be used to evaluate an individual's driving record include which of the following?

A. attending physician's statement

B. application

c. personal history interview

Answer Options: 1. B only is correct

2. A and C only are correct

3. B and C only are correct

4. A, B and C are correct

4

Infraction found in an MVR can include numerous alcohol related or drug related Violations. Name 5.

1. administrative per se - occurs when the friver refuses to submit to testing of blood or urine for the presence of alcohol or breathalyzer

2. interlock device - court mandated breathalyzer that is connected to the ignition

3. implied consent - A person who has a license to drive to have given his consent to chemical testing

4. conditional privilege - Temporary privilege to drive pending a court hearing to address an alcohol or drug related violations

5. Zero tolerance law - Targeted to drivers younger than the legal drinking age.

Six effects alcohol has on an individual's ability to drive.

1. reaction time - reflexes delayed

2. vision - eye function is slower

3. tracking - ability to judge placement of the vehicle

4. concentration - attention to driving is deminished

5. Comprehension - inhibits decision making ability

6. coordination - reduced hand/eye and foot coordination

Which of the following statements regarding a driving under the influence (DUI) offense are correct?

A. All offenders are equipped with an ignition interlock device

B. A conviction can be removed following alcohol education classes

C Driving privileges are suspended when a driver refuses to take a chemical test.

Answer Options are: 1. A and B only are correct

2. A and C only are correct

3. B and C only are correct

4. A, B and C are correct

3

Which of the following disorders can affect driving ability?

A narcolepsy

B sleep apnea

C. epilepsy

Answer Options: 1. A only is correct

2. C is correct

3. A and B only are correct

4. A, B and C are correct

4

Describe the difference between aggressive driving and road rage.

aggressive is speeding will running a red light. Road rage is assault with a motor vehicle.

Explain why a permanent flat extra or table rating may be more appropriate rating strategy than a temporary flat extra for rating motor vehicle concerns.

temporary flat extra only attach the risk to the latest infractions, not future infractions

Describe the effect of distracted driving can have on an insured's mortality.

10% of all fatal crashes and 18% if injury accidents.

68% of young driver ages 18 to 20 are willing to answer incoming phone calls.

In Canada, life insurance can be purchased to offset which tax?

1. Property

2. estate

3. capital gains

4. sales

3

In the United states, life insurance is used in the estate planning process for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

1. Offset probate cost

2. provide cash for use by the estate

3. pay estate taxes

4. replace key person income

4

Which of the following statements regarding deferred compensation plans is/are correct?

A. They are in addition to the basic benefits available to all employees.

B. They allow executives to accrue extra funds for retirement.

C. the are usually permanent insurance plans with large internal values.

Answer Options: 1. A only is correct

2. B only is correct

3. B and C are correct

4. A, B and C are correct

4

Explain three methods of calculating the amount of life insurance needed when considering income replacement and explain the advantages and disadvantages of each method.

1. Multiple of Salary Method - multiplies the salary

advantage - is easy to use, useful in simple sales situations

disadvantage - age of spouse, does not account for dependents, monetary inflation or income growth.

2. Human life Value Method - measurement of the earning potential over the insured's life time.

advantage - actual after tax earning, projected rate of earnings, expected length of career

disadvantage - can require software to calculate.

3. Needs Analysis Method - financial planning and translates them into a proposed death benefit.

Advantage - provides a somewhat larger benefit in the period immediately following the death of the insured, satisfies the normal living expenses of surviving dependents

Disadvantage - Can require exhaustive amount of research and computations

Describe sources of financial data an underwriter can request of receive to evaluate the amount of insurance being purchased.

Insurance application

Cover letter from producer

Financial statement, total income revived, expenses paid out, net income or profits, assets owed.

Buy-Sell agreement

Inspection report

The type of business insurance that indemnifies a company against the loss of an employee whose skills are critical to the firm is:

1. creditor

2. cross-purchase

3. income replacement

4. Key person

4

Methods of calculating income replacement for personal life insurance include which of the following:

A. Multiple of salary

B. Human life value

C. Needs analysis

Answer options: 1. A and B are correct

2. A and C only are correct

3. B and C only are correct

4. A, B and C are correct.

4

Typical examples of insurable interest with regard to financial dependence include which of the following?

A. The relationship between young children and their parents.

B. the relationship between a non-working spouse and the family breadwinner

C. A situation involving business owners who require the skills of a top salesperson to keep the company profitable

Answer options: 1. A and B are correct

2. A and C are correct

3. B and C are correct

4. A, B and C are correct

4

In the US, the limit that differentiates larger, taxable estates from smaller non-taxable estates is:

1. the exclusion amount

2. income tax

3. Tax Hike Prevention Act of 2010

4. Capital gain

1

the human life value method takes into account all EXCEPT:

1. actual after-tax earnings.

2. projected rate of earnings growth

3. the potential for unemployment

4. discount rate for future earnings

3

Universal life insurance is characterized by:

1. Guaranteed issue for applicants

2. death benefit flexibility

3. rigid premium payment schedule

4. flexible mortality rates

2

Accelerated life insurance benefit payment can be paid if which of the following occurs?

A. A terminal illness

b. a need for long-term care

C. a critical illness

Answer options: 1. B only is correct

2. A and C are correct

3. B and C are correct

4. A, B and C are correct

4

Administrative considerations to be addressed during life insurance product development include all of the following EXCEPT:

1. the creation of the policy forms

2. the determination of the mortality risk

3. the implementation of the policyholder services procedures

4. the modification of system software

2

What are the different factors on which a successful marketing effort relies.

what the product offers, product competitiveness, advanced sales concepts and underwriting niches

Discuss the differences between a captive agency force and independent producers.

captive agency can only sell for one company and independent producers can sell to multiple companies.