Pathology I Minimals (complete)

The request form must include:

Select one or more:

a. Name of the Institution where-, and the technique by which the sample was obtained

b. The exact anatomical site of the sample's origin

c. Personal data (name, social security number, date and place of birth, mother's name, postal address)

d. The exact number (if applicable) or physical nature (liquid, cell scraping, smear, curet-tage, etc.) of the

sample

all

The purpose of paraffin embedding is

Select one:

a. Paraffin preserves the original tissue structure

b. Once paraffin cools down it becomes hard enough to be cut at 4-5 µm thickness

c. Paraffin is stainable only when it is warm

d. It is only paraffin that is suitable to have the entire sample fully infiltrated

b

The gross description (in addition to the well-known 7 features) must detail the followings:

Select one or more:

a. Marking the surgical margins (staining/coloring)

b. The relationship between the pathological lesion and its surroundings

c. Gender (sex) of the patient

d. Age of the patient

a, b

The initial steps of tissue processing are:

Select one or more:

a. Dehydration through ascending alcohol solutions

b. Sectioning

c. Selecting the representative area from within the sample provided it is required and placing it/them in a

cassette

d. Grossing of the properly identified biopsy sample

a, c, d

The fundamental, most basic rule of fixation:

Select one:

a. The water concentration of the fixative must not be more than 10%

b. Appropriate fixative fixes 1 cm *3 tissue in 1 hour

c. The water concentration of the fixative must not be less than 10%

d. The ratio of the fixative's (10% buffered formalin) and the sample's volume has to be at least 10:1

d

Evaluation of a „frozen section" is always limited, because:

Select one or more:

a. They do not allow precise and detailed analysis of cellular morphology

b. The sections are relatively thick (8-10 µm).

c. Freezing inevitably brings about artifacts

d. These sections are stainable only with lipid soluble substances

a, b, c

The essential properties of the embedding cassettes are:

Select one or more:

a. It is an easily identifiable and easy to use plastic box

b. The cassettes are suitable for radiological analysis

c. The plastic cassette supports molecular analysis

d. Since it is porous it allows the penetration of various fluids (fixatives, warmed paraffin, etc.)

a, d

The appropriate indications for intra-operative consultation („frozen section") are:

Select one or more:

a. Controlling the involvement of surgical margins

b. Checking whether the sample is representative and is from the target area

c. Determination whether the sample is suitable for diagnosis (ratio of necrotic vs live tis-sue)

d. Allow the surgeon to communicate the diagnosis immediately after the procedure

a, b, c

The general rules that apply to final blocking:

Select one or more:

a. The surface of the selected area should be <1 cm2,

b. The blocked part needs to be comprised only of pathological tissue

c. The final thickness of the selected piece must be ≤ 4-5 mm

d. The blocked fragment must include the entire lesion

a, c

Biopsies may be obtained by:

Select one or more:

a. Open surgery

b. Based on telepathology

c. Via endoscopy

d. Using a fine needle (FNA; core biopsy)

a, c, d

Section preparation is comprised of the following steps:

Select one or more:

a. Proper positioning of the paraffin block in a microtome and cutting 4-5 µm thick sec-tions

b. Removal of the paraffin (deparaffination) and rehydration of the tissue

c. Staining and cover slipping

d. Transferring the sections onto warm water and spreading them horizontally

all

The steps following dehydration are:

Select one or more:

a. Deparaffination and rehydration

b. After treatment with the intermediaer solution (xylene) embedding in paraffin

c. Staining and cover slipping

d. Sectioning

all

Having acquired a tissue sample, the following steps must be taken:

Select one or more:

a. Permanent identification at the site of sampling

b. Continuous control of sample identification

c. Processing the sample in the Department of Pathology

d. Processing and final work-up at the site of sampling

b, c

It is necessary to check identification during:

Select one or more:

a. Evaluation of the finding(s) by the responsible clinician/MDT (= multidisciplinary team) members

b. The microscopic analysis and report-dictation (by the Pathologist responsible)

c. The administrative processing/mailing/filing of the report

d. Filing the glass slides/sections

a, b, c

The biopsy cannot and should not be analyzed without:

Select one:

a. All relevant clinical-, radiological- and chemical pathology data (information)

b. Unless the area to be studied is labeled with India ink

c. Dehydration of the tissue, because otherwise its volume is too large

d. Prior to freezing the tissue to prevent autolysis

a

The efficacy of fixation is determined by:

Select one or more:

a. The age of the patient

b. The ambient temperature and that of the fixative

c. The intrinsic features of the tissue (solid-, fluid-rich, cystic, lipid-rich, etc.)

d. The size (volume) of the sample

b, c, d

The ID number or code must be clearly visible on:

Select one or more:

a. On all sections prepared from the block(s)

b. The request form and the final histopathology report

c. On the surface of the cassette that holds the block

d. The sample-holder/container

all

The completed request form must include information on:

Select one or more:

a. Name and phone number of the GP („family doctor")

b. Precise/assumed clinical diagnosis and indication for the biopsy

c. Relevant medical (familial) history

d. Name, phone number and Medical Registration (ID) Number of the sampling physician

b, c, d

Which of the following answers is false?

Select one or more:

a. Only onto the relevant physical objects (sample container, block, glassware)

b. Exclusively onto the relevant printed and/or electronic documentation

c. All listed above must be labeled with the proper code

d. Solely onto the request form

e. The ID number or bar code used in the Department of Pathology must be entered:

a, b, d

It is a MUST to identify and check proper labeling of the sample:

Select one or more:

a. At the site of sampling, checked by the physician who obtains the sample

b. At delivery and accession of the sample by the technician responsible

c. At the site and time of grossing/dissection (by both the technician and physician)

d. During processing the blocks and sections/slides

all

Anatomical (form, shape or positional) abnormality of body parts that is caused by mechanical forces?

Select one:

a. Anaplasia

b. Malformation

c. Dysplasia

d. Deformation

Deformation

Pigmentation disorder caused by tyrosinase deficiency?

Select one:

a. Hirsuitism

b. Infertilism

c. Virilism

d. Albinism

Albinism

Autosmal recessive deficiency of hepatic enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase?

Select one:

a. Proteinuria

b. Lipiduria

c. Bilirubinuria

d. Phenylketonuria

Phenylketonuria

Major cardiovascular complication of Marfan syndrome?

Select one:

a. Vasculitis

b. Dissecting aortic aneurysm

c. Arteriosclerosis

d. Thrombotic microangiopathy

Dissecting aortic aneurysm

Most common cause of congenital mental retardation?

Select one:

a. Alport syndrome

b. Turner syndrome

c. Digeorge syndrome

d. Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)

Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)

Major gastrointestinal complication of cystic fibrosis in the newborn?

Select one:

a. Paralytic ileus

b. Meconium ileus

c. Enterocolitis necrotisans

d. Umbilical herniation

Meconium ileus

Reduced organ size due to incomplete/improper development of the organ?

Select one:

a. Dysgenesia

b. Dysplasia

c. Aplasia

d. Hypoplasia

Hypoplasia

Substance lacking in neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?

Select one:

a. Surfactant

b. Phenylalanine hydroxylase

c. Ceruloplasmin

d. Alfa-1 anti-tripsin

Surfactant

Chromosomal aberration defining Klinefelter syndrome?

Select one:

a. 47, XXY

b. 46, XY

c. 47, XYY

d. 47 XXX

47, XXY

Major CNS complication of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?

Select one:

a. Intraventricular cerebral hemorrhage

b. Hydrocephalus

c. Meningeoma

d. Hippocampal atrophy

Intraventricular cerebral hemorrhage

Developmental anomaly in which an organ in situated apart from its normal anatomic site?

Select one:

a. Ectopia or heterotopia

b. Choristoma

c. Hamartoma

d. Metastasis

Ectopia or heterotopia

Which organ is massively enlarged in Gaucher's disease?

Select one:

a. Spleen

b. Kidney

c. Heart

d. Lungs

Spleen

Persistence of a primitive organ anlage or rudiments without maturation is called?

Select one:

a. Aplasia

b. Dysgenesia

c. Dysplasia

d. Hypoplasia

Aplasia

Pattern of inherintance in disease caused by the passage of a single mutant allele?

Select one:

a. Autosomal dominant disorder

b. X-linked recessive disorder

c. Autosomal recessive disorder

d. Codominant disorder

Autosomal dominant disorder

Partial formation causing obstruction of a luminal organ?

Select one:

a. Hypoplasia

b. Stenosis

c. Dysgenesia

d. Atresia

Atresia

Presence of an extra copy of a chromosome?

Select one:

a. Monosomy

b. Tetrasomy

c. Trisomy

d. Mixoploidy

Trisomy

Major intestinal complication of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?Select one:

a. Ulcerative colitis

b. Crohn disease

c. Hirshprung disease

d. Necrotizing enterocolitis

Necrotizing enterocolitis

Incomplete closure of the spine and/or vertebral chanel?

Select one:

a. Bamboo spine

b. Kyphoscoliosis

c. Spina bifida

d. Retroperitoneal herniation

Spina bifida

Function of the abnormal cell membrane transporter in cystic fibrosis?

Select one:

a. Sodium channel

b. Calcium channel

c. Potassium channel

d. Chloride channel

Chloride channel

Autosomal recessive disorder characterized by accumulation of glucosylceramide, primarly in

macrophage lysosomes?

Select one:

a. Niemann- Pick disease

b. Gaucher disease

c. Zellweger disease

d. Girke disease

Gaucher disease

Autosomal recessive disorder that features chronic pulmonary disease, deficient exocrine pancreatic

function and complications by inspissated mucus in organs with secretory activity?

Select one:

a. Cystic fibrosis

b. Hypercholesterinaemia

c. Pulmonary hypoplasia

d. Diabetes mellitus

Cystic fibrosis

The complete absence of an organ primordium is called?

Select one:

a. Hypoplasia

b. Dysgenesia

c. Dysplasia

d. Agenesia

Agenesia

Lysosomal storage disease caused by the mutation in the sphingomyelinase gene?

Select one:

a. Gaucher disease

b. Niemann-Pick disease

c. Girke disease

d. Fabry disease

Niemann-Pick disease

Major factor associated with nondisjunction syndromes, particularly trisomy 21?

Select one:

a. Maternal age

b. Gestation period

c. First gravidity

d. Paternal age

Maternal age

Herniation or protusion of the meninges through a closure defect of the vertebral column?

Select one:

a. Meningocele

b. Varicocele

c. Hydrocele

d. Lymphocele

Meningocele

Lung condition caused by high altitude?

Select one:

a. Pneumoconiosis

b. Pneumonia

c. Emphysema

d. Pulmonary edema

Pulmonary edema

Principal site of toxicity for organic mercurials?

Select one:

a. Kidney

b. CNS

c. Heart

d. Liver

CNS

Common anemia associated with alcoholism?

Select one:

a. Thalassemia major

b. Aplastic anemia

c. Sickle cell anemia

d. Megaloblastic anemia

Megaloblastic anemia

Hepatocarcinogen produced by Aspergillus flavus?

Select one:

a. Endotoxin

b. Aflatoxin

c. Exotoxin

d. Betatoxin

Aflatoxin

Glomerular disease associated with heroin abuse?

Select one:

a. Crescentic glomerulonephritis

b. Collapsing focal glomerulosclerosis

c. Perihilar focal glomerulosclerosis

d. Tip lesion

Collapsing focal glomerulosclerosis

Neoplasia associated with asbestos exposure?Select one:

a. Liver cancer

b. Mesothelioma

c. Colon cancer

d. Rhabdomyosarcoma

Mesothelioma

Degree of burns characterized by epidermal necrosis not extending over to the dermis?

Select one:

a. Third-degree burn

b. Fourth-degree burn

c. First-degree burn

d. Second-degree burn

Second-degree burn

Thermal alteration accompanied by a hypermetabolic state and often by rhabdomyolisis?

Select one:

a. Extreme cold

b. Malignant hyperthermia

c. Frostbite

d. Malignant hypothermia

Malignant hyperthermia

Cancers associated with benzene exposure?

Select one or more:

a. Leukemia (acute myeloblastic leukemia)

b. Malt lymphoma

c. Follicular lymphoma

d. Multiple myeloma

a, d

Vascular cells most sensitive to radiation?

Select one:

a. Mesothelial cells

b. Fibroblasts

c. Endothelial cells

d. Myocytes

Endothelial cells

Principal organ target for the toxic effects of inorganic mercury?

Select one:

a. Liver

b. Heart

c. Brain

d. Kidney

Kidney

Common bone disease in postmenopausal alcoholic women?

Select one:

a. Osteoporosis

b. Osteomalacia

c. Exostoses

d. Osteogenesis imperfect

Osteoporosis

Inflammatory and occlusive disease of the distal extremity vasculature occurring almost exclusively in

heavy smokers?

Select one:

a. Autoimmune vasculitis

b. Buerger's disease

c. Phlebothrombosis

d. Thrombophlebitis

Buerger's disease

Oral signs of pellagra?

Select one:

a. Rhinitis

b. Pharingitis

c. Glossitis

d. Hepatitis

Glossitis

Type of cardiomyopathy associated with alcohol abuse?

Select one:

a. Obstructive cardiomyopathy

b. Dilated cardiomyopathy

c. Restrictive cardiomyopathy

d. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Dilated cardiomyopathy

Effect of vitamin A deficiency on glandular epithelia?

Select one:

a. Squamous metaplasia

b. Hypertrophy

c. Adenoma formation

d. Adenocarcinoma formation

Squamous metaplasia

Major endocrine manifestation in male alcoholics?

Select one:

a. Adrenogenital syndromes

b. Insulin resistance

c. Feminization

d. Addison disease

Feminization

Common condition associated with folic acid deficiency?

Select one:

a. Pregnancy

b. Infertility

c. Obesity

d. Bulimia

Pregnancy

Which is the major independent risk factor for myocardial infarction?Select one:

a. Female gender

b. Hypocholsterolemia

c. Cigarette smoking

d. Chronic bronchitis

Cigarette smoking

Effect of vitamin A deficiency on the cornea?

Select one:

a. Keratomalacia

b. Dysplasia

c. Karatoachantoma

d. Squamous metaplasia

Keratomalacia

Effect of toxic lead exposure on the peripheral nervous system?

Select one:

a. Peripheral motor neuropathy

b. Spinocerebellar degeneration

c. Amyloidosis

d. Anorexia nervosa

Peripheral motor neuropathy

Retrograde amnesia and confabulatory symptoms in chronic alcoholics?

Select one:

a. Parkinson's disease

b. Creutzfeld-Jakob Disease

c. Alzheimer's disease

d. Korsakoff psychosis

Korsakoff psychosis

Liver neoplasm associated with oral contraceptives?

Select one:

a. Hepatocellular carcinoma

b. Metastatic adenocarcinoma

c. Cholangiocellular carcinoma

d. Hepatic adenoma

Hepatic adenoma

Acute skeletal muscle disease associated with alcoholism?

Select one:

a. Muscular atrophy

b. Fatty change of the muscle cells

c. Acute rhabdomyolysis

d. Acute leiomyolisis

Acute rhabdomyolysis

Type of malnutrition most commonly seen in children and caused by a protein deficient diet?

Select one:

a. Marasmus

b. Rickets

c. Wet beri beri

d. Kwashiorkor

Kwashiorkor

Thiamine deficiency predominantly with cardiac manifestation?

Select one:

a. Rickets

b. Wet beri beri

c. Marasmus

d. Pellagra

Wet beri beri

Hepatic tumor associated with vinyl chloride exposure?

Select one:

a. Cholangiocellular carcinoma

b. Hepatic adenoma

c. Hepatocellular carcinoma

d. Angiosarcoma of the liver

Angiosarcoma of the liver

Principal cause of sudden death following electrical injury?

Select one:

a. Burn injury

b. Myocardial infarction

c. Respiratory insufficiency

d. Cardiac arrhythmias

Cardiac arrhythmias

Effect of alcoholism on the pancreas?

Select one:

a. Acute and chronic pancreatitis

b. Pancreatic stone formation

c. Cystic degeneration of the pancreas

d. Hemochromatosis

Acute and chronic pancreatitis

Split or tear of the skin?

Select one:

a. Mummification

b. Skinning

c. Laceration

d. Skin drying

Laceration

Major effects of cigarette smoking on the fetus?

Select one or more:

a. Small size for gestation age at every stage of pregnancy

b. Maceration

c. Hydrocephalus internus

d. Impairment of physical, cognitive and emotional development

a, d

Category of pulmonary disease caused by inhaled dusts?Select one:

a. Lobar pneumonia

b. Lung congestion

c. Bronchopneumonia

d. Pneumoconiosis

Pneumoconiosis

End-stage manifestation of chronic alcoholism on the liver?

Select one:

a. Acute hepatitis

b. Steatosis hepatis

c. Cirrhosis

d. Hepar adiposo-moschatum

Cirrhosis

Common vascular complication of oral contraceptives?

Select one:

a. Vasculitis

b. Thrombosis

c. Fibrinoid necrosis

d. Atherosclerosis

Thrombosis

Principal complication of radiation dose over 300 cGy?

Select one:

a. Bone marrow failure

b. Liver failure

c. Heart failure

d. Burn injury

Bone marrow failure

Hematologic complication of vitamin B12 deficiency?

Select one:

a. Hemolytic anemia

b. Pernicious anemia

c. Thalassemia

d. Sickle cell anemia

Pernicious anemia

Effect of excess vitamin D on serum electrolytes?

Select one:

a. Hypercalcemia

b. Hypocalcemia

c. Hypovolemia

d. Hypercholesterolemia

Hypercalcemia

Malnutrition in children by a diet deficient in calories from all sources?

Select one:

a. Wet beri beri

b. Kwashiorkor

c. Marasmus

d. Rickets

Marasmus

Degree of burns characterized by congestion and pain but no necrosis?

Select one:

a. Second-degree burn

b. Third-degree burn

c. First-degree burn

d. Fourth-degree burn

First-degree burn

Neoplasia associated with furniture and shoe manufacturing?

Select one:

a. Mesothelioma

b. Nasal carcinoma

c. Urinary bladder cancer

d. Colon cancer

Nasal carcinoma

Main cause of death following acute arsenic poisoning?

Select one:

a. Heart toxicity

b. Liver toxicity

c. Kidney toxicity

d. CNS toxicity

CNS toxicity

Cardinal signs of thiamine deficiency?

Select one or more:

a. Edema

b. Cardiac failure

c. Acute hepatitis

d. Polyneuropathy

a, b, d

Clinical niacin deficiency?

Select one:

a. Wet beri beri

b. Marasmus

c. Rickets

d. Pellagra

Pellagra

Pulmonary disease secondary to inhaled organic dusts?

Select one:

a. Lung congestion

b. Lobar pneumonia

c. Bronchopneumonia

d. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

Acute degenerative disease occurring in the pons associated with alcoholism?Select one:

a. Diffuse plaque formation

b. Multifocal infarction

c. Central pontine myelinolysis

d. Chronic meningitis

Central pontine myelinolysis

Deficient substance in Wernicke's encephalopathy?

Select one:

a. Enkephalin

b. Galactocerebroside

c. Fibrillary acidic protein

d. Thiamine

Thiamine

Common pulmonary complication of inhalation burn?

Select one:

a. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

b. Interstitial pneumonia

c. Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS)

d. Aspiration pneumonia

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

The three "D's" of pellagra?

Select one or more:

a. Dermatitis

b. Dementia

c. Diabetes

d. Diarrhea

Dermatitis, Diarrhea, Dementia

Mitochondrial target for cyanide?

Select one:

a. Phospholipase

b. Hydrogene peroxidase

c. Cytochrome oxidase

d. Protease

Cytochrome oxidase

Major non-neoplastic lung diseases caused by cigarette smoking?

Select one or more:

a. Lobar pneumonia

b. Emphysema

c. Bronchopneumonia

d. Chronic bronchitis

b, d

Common cardiac complication of intravenous drug abuse?

Select one:

a. Bacterial endocarditis

b. Hypertension

c. Mitral insufficency

d. Aortic stenosis

Bacterial endocarditis

Common name for vitamin D deficiency?

Select one:

a. Scurvy

b. Rickets

c. Pellagra

d. Marasmus

Rickets

General manifestation of vitamin C deficiency?

Select one:

a. Rickets

b. Pellagra

c. Marasmus

d. Scurvy

Scurvy

08. Brain condition associated with A̲β amyloid:

Select one:

a. Alzheimer disease

b. Transtentorial herniation

c. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

d. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage

Alzheimer disease

05. Diseases associated with AL amyloidosis

Select one:

a. Chronic deep site infections

b. Osteomyelitis

c. T-cell lymphoma

d. Multiple myeloma, plasma cell dyscrasia or certain B-cell lymphomas

Multiple myeloma, plasma cell dyscrasia or certain B-cell lymphomas