308 Exam 1 Objectives

Flashcards covering key concepts from Week 1 to Week 4 lecture notes on Therapeutic Communication, Professional Nursing Roles, Pharmacology Principles, Gordon's Functional Health Patterns, the Nursing Process, and Health Assessment Theory for Exam 1.

A newly graduated nurse is reviewing key professional practice elements. Which of the following is considered a foundational component influencing the nursing profession?

A. Personal preference for shift scheduling

B. The latest advancements in medical technology

C. Ethical guidelines and legal parameters

D. Popular trends in patient entertainment

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Ethical guidelines and legal parameters (Option C) form the foundation of professional nursing practice, guiding decision-making, ensuring patient safety, and defining the scope of practice. Personal preference for shift scheduling (Option A), advancements in medical technology (Option B), and popular trends in patient entertainment (Option D) are not foundational or universally influential elements of professional nursing practice.

During a shift, a nurse is explaining medication side effects to a patient and their family. In this scenario, which professional nurse role is the nurse primarily demonstrating?

A. Caregiver

B. Advocate

C. Educator

D. Manager

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse explains medication side effects to a patient and family, they are providing essential information and instruction, which is a primary function of the Educator role (Option C). A caregiver (Option A) provides direct patient care. An advocate (Option B) speaks on behalf of the patient. A manager (Option D) oversees unit operations and staff.

A nurse is building rapport with a new patient. Which action best reflects the establishment of a therapeutic nurse-client relationship?

A. Sharing personal anecdotes to show empathy

B. Maintaining professional boundaries while actively listening

C. Giving unsolicited advice based on personal experience

D. Strictly adhering to medical tasks without engaging in conversation

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Establishing a therapeutic nurse-client relationship involves purposeful interaction focused on the client's needs. Maintaining professional boundaries while actively listening (Option B) fosters trust and respect, which are crucial components. Sharing personal anecdotes (Option A) can shift focus away from the client. Giving unsolicited advice (Option C) can be judgmental and disempowering. Strictly adhering to medical tasks without conversation (Option D) neglects the emotional and psychological aspects of care.

A nurse sends a clear explanation of a discharge plan to a patient, who then summarizes the plan back to the nurse. In the communication process, what role does the patient's summary play?

A. Message

B. Channel

C. Feedback

D. Sender

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the communication process, the patient summarizing the discharge plan back to the nurse is an example of Feedback (Option C). Feedback allows the sender (nurse) to confirm that the message (discharge plan) was received and understood. The message (Option A) is the content being communicated. The channel (Option B) is the medium through which the message is sent. The sender (Option D) initiates the communication.

Which of the following actions by a nurse acts as a facilitator for effective communication with a client?

A. Using medical jargon to demonstrate knowledge

B. Maintaining eye contact and an open posture

C. Interrupting the client to share personal experiences

D. Performing tasks while talking to the client without looking at them

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining eye contact and an open posture (Option B) are non-verbal cues that convey attentiveness, respect, and openness, thus facilitating effective communication. Using medical jargon (Option A) can be a barrier to understanding. Interrupting the client (Option C) shows disrespect and can shut down communication. Performing tasks without looking at the client (Option D) communicates disinterest and can create a barrier.

A nurse is attempting to communicate with an anxious client, but continuously checks their phone for messages. This behavior acts as which type of communication barrier?

A. Environmental distraction

B. Lack of privacy

C. Preoccupation

D. Sensory deficit

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Continuously checking a phone indicates that the nurse's attention is elsewhere, demonstrating preoccupation (Option C). Preoccupation hinders the nurse's ability to be fully present and engaged with the client, acting as a significant communication blocker. Environmental distraction (Option A) would be external noise or activity. Lack of privacy (Option B) refers to the setting, while sensory deficit (Option D) relates to the client's ability to see, hear, or speak.

A nursing student is reviewing medications. What is the primary focus of the field of pharmacology?

A. The study of surgical procedures

B. The study of diseases and their causes

C. The study of drugs and their effects on living systems

D. The study of human anatomy and physiology

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Pharmacology is defined as the study of drugs and their effects on living systems (Option C), including their mechanisms of action, uses, adverse effects, and disposition in the body. The other options describe surgical procedures (A), pathology/etiology (B), and anatomy/physiology (D), respectively, which are distinct fields.

When considering an ideal drug, which property is most critical for ensuring patient safety?

A. Ease of administration

B. Specificity

C. Reversibility

D. Safety

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: While all listed options are desirable properties of an ideal drug, safety (Option D) is the most critical for ensuring patient well-being and preventing harm. An effective drug should also be safe, meaning it produces no harmful effects, even at high doses and for prolonged periods. Ease of administration (A), specificity (B), and reversibility (C) are important but secondary to safety.

After administering a new antibiotic, the patient develops a rash and difficulty breathing. These are examples of which type of medication effect?

A. Therapeutic effects

B. Desired effects

C. Adverse effects

D. Expected effects

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A rash and difficulty breathing are undesired, harmful, and potentially life-threatening reactions to a medication, categorizing them as Adverse effects (Option C). Therapeutic effects (A) are the intended beneficial physiological responses. Desired (B) and Expected (D) effects are generally synonymous with therapeutic effects or common, predictable side effects that are generally tolerated.

A drug's mechanism of action and its therapeutic effects on the body are studied under which branch of pharmacology?

A. Pharmacokinetics

B. Pharmacodynamics

C. Pharmacotherapeutics

D. Pharmacognosy

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Pharmacodynamics (Option B) is the branch of pharmacology that focuses on what the drug does to the body, including its mechanism of action, therapeutic effects, and adverse effects. Pharmacokinetics (A) describes what the body does to the drug. Pharmacotherapeutics (C) is the clinical use of drugs. Pharmacognosy (D) is the study of medicines derived from natural sources.

The nurse understands that the processes of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination describe what the body does to a drug. This concept is known as:

A. Pharmacodynamics

B. Pharmacokinetics

C. Pharmacotherapeutics

D. Clinical pharmacology

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The processes of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination describe how the body handles a drug, which is the definition of Pharmacokinetics (Option B). Pharmacodynamics (A) is what the drug does to the body. Pharmacotherapeutics (C) is the clinical use of drugs to treat diseases. Clinical pharmacology (D) is a broader term encompassing both pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics in a clinical setting.

The nurse is reviewing a patient's medication regimen, including why each drug is prescribed and its role in treating conditions. This falls under which aspect of pharmacology?

A. Pharmacognosy

B. Toxicology

C. Pharmacotherapeutics

D. Pharmacoepidemiology

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Pharmacotherapeutics (Option C) is the clinical use of drugs to prevent and treat diseases. Reviewing why each drug is prescribed and its role in treating conditions directly relates to applying pharmacological knowledge to patient care. Pharmacognosy (A) is the study of natural drug sources. Toxicology (B) is the study of adverse effects of chemicals. Pharmacoepidemiology (D) studies the use and effects of drugs in large populations.

A drug is administered orally. Which pharmacokinetic process describes the movement of this drug from the gastrointestinal tract into the bloodstream?

A. Distribution

B. Metabolism

C. Elimination

D. Absorption

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The movement of a drug from its site of administration (e.g., GI tract for oral drugs) into the bloodstream is defined as Absorption (Option D). Distribution (A) is the movement of drugs from the blood to tissues. Metabolism (B) is the biochemical alteration of drugs. Elimination (C) is the removal of drugs from the body.

After a drug is absorbed into the bloodstream, which pharmacokinetic process describes its movement to various tissues and organs throughout the body?

A. Absorption

B. Distribution

C. Metabolism

D. Elimination

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Once a drug is in the bloodstream, its movement from the blood to the interstitial space and into cells throughout the body is known as Distribution (Option B). Absorption (A) is the entry into the bloodstream. Metabolism (C) is a biochemical alteration. Elimination (D) is removal from the body.

The liver plays a significant role in chemically altering drugs into more water-soluble compounds for easier excretion. This process is known as:

A. Absorption

B. Distribution

C. Metabolism

D. Elimination

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The biochemical alteration of drugs, often by the liver, into inactive metabolites, more soluble compounds, or active metabolites, is called Metabolism (Option C). Absorption (A), distribution (B), and elimination (D) are distinct pharmacokinetic processes.

A patient with renal failure is at higher risk for drug toxicity due to impaired removal of drugs from the body. This process is primarily handled by the kidneys and is known as:

A. Absorption

B. Distribution

C. Metabolism

D. Elimination

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The removal of drugs from the body, primarily through urine by the kidneys or through bile, is known as Elimination (Option D). Impaired renal function leads to decreased elimination and increased risk of drug accumulation and toxicity. Absorption (A), distribution (B), and metabolism (C) refer to different stages of what the body does to the drug.

To maximize the therapeutic effects of a prescribed antibiotic, the nurse should prioritize which action?

A. Administering the medication with a large meal

B. Ensuring consistent administration times and completing the full course

C. Doubling the dose if symptoms persist

D. Stopping the medication once symptoms improve

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: To maximize the therapeutic effects of an antibiotic, it's crucial to ensure consistent administration times and complete the full prescribed course (Option B). This maintains steady therapeutic drug levels. Administering with a large meal (A) can delay absorption for some drugs. Doubling the dose (C) or stopping prematurely (D) can lead to toxicity or antibiotic resistance, respectively, and are unsafe practices.

Before administering medication, the nurse assesses the patient's allergies and current drug list. This action aligns with which phase of the nursing process in medication management?

A. Diagnosis

B. Planning

C. Implementation

D. Assessment

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Gathering information such as allergies, current medications, and health status is a critical step in the Assessment phase (Option D) of the nursing process. This data forms the basis for identifying potential problems and planning safe and effective care. Diagnosis (A), Planning (B), and Implementation (C) occur after or build upon the assessment data.

When considering drug therapy for an older adult patient, the nurse must consider factors such as reduced organ function and potential polypharmacy. These are examples of:

A. Methods of administration

B. Ideal drug properties

C. Individual and cultural considerations in drug therapy

D. Pharmacokinetic challenges only relevant to children

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Reduced organ function, polypharmacy, genetic variations, age, diet, and cultural beliefs are all examples of Individual and cultural considerations in drug therapy (Option C) that influence how a patient responds to medications. These factors necessitate individualized care plans. The other options are incorrect as they refer to different aspects of drug therapy.

A nurse is caring for a patient and systematically uses Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation in their care delivery. These represent the:

A. Stages of professional development

B. Phases of the Nursing Process

C. Components of a medical diagnosis

D. Steps for clinical research

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation are the five sequential and interrelated stages that constitute the Phases of the Nursing Process (Option B). This systematic approach guides nurses in providing comprehensive patient care. The other options describe different concepts.

During the assessment phase of the nursing process, what is the primary purpose of data collection?

A. To immediately identify a medical diagnosis

B. To gather information to understand a patient's health status

C. To initiate immediate medical treatment

D. To delegate tasks to unlicensed personnel

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of data collection during the assessment phase is to gather information from multiple sources to understand a patient's health status (Option B). This comprehensive understanding then forms the foundation for nursing diagnoses, planning, and interventions. Nurses do not primarily identify medical diagnoses (A) or initiate medical treatment (C) independently. Delegating tasks (D) occurs during implementation, not as the primary purpose of assessment.

Following assessment, the nurse formulates a problem statement based on actual or potential health problems amenable to nursing intervention, such as 'Acute pain related to surgical incision.' This statement represents a:

A. Medical diagnosis

B. Collaborative problem

C. Nursing diagnosis

D. Clinical prognosis

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A clinical judgment about individual, family, or community responses to actual or potential health problems or life processes that nurses are educated and licensed to treat is a Nursing diagnosis (Option C). 'Acute pain related to surgical incision' is a classic example. A medical diagnosis (A) identifies a disease or pathology. A collaborative problem (B) requires both medicine and nursing interventions. A clinical prognosis (D) is a prediction of the disease course.

After identifying nursing diagnoses, the nurse develops client-centered goals and chooses appropriate nursing interventions. These actions are part of which phase of the nursing process?

A. Assessment

B. Planning

C. Implementation

D. Evaluation

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Developing patient-centered measurable outcomes (goals) and selecting specific nursing interventions to achieve those goals are key activities within the Planning phase (Option B) of the nursing process. Assessment (A) is data collection. Implementation (C) is carrying out interventions. Evaluation (D) is determining if goals were met.

A nurse uses the criterion 'The patient will report a pain level of less than 3/10 within 30 minutes of medication administration.' This goal is an example of adherence to which principle?

A. Abstract, Measurable, Action-oriented, Realistic, Timely (AMART)

B. Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound (SMART)

C. Systematic, Medical, Action-oriented, Responsible, Thoughtful (SMART)

D. Strategic, Motivational, Appropriate, Reliable, Tangible (SMART)

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The goal 'The patient will report a pain level of less than 3 within 30 minutes of medication administration' perfectly aligns with the SMART criteria: Specific (<3/10 pain), Measurable (pain scale and time), Achievable (realistic expectation), Relevant (to patient's pain), and Time-bound (within 30 minutes) (Option B). This standard helps ensure clear, attainable, and evaluable goals.

During the nursing process, a nurse analyzes various pieces of patient information, synthesizes them, and makes informed decisions about care. This cognitive activity is known as:

A. Intuition

B. Critical Thinking in the Nursing Process

C. Procedural knowledge

D. Rote memorization

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The cognitive process of analyzing and interpreting data to make sound clinical decisions, especially when complex patient situations arise, is known as Critical Thinking in the Nursing Process (Option B). This goes beyond mere intuition (A), following procedures (C), or recalling facts (D) by involving evaluation and judgment.

A nurse uses a systematic framework to assess a patient's health, covering areas like nutrition, activity, sleep, and coping. This comprehensive approach is based on:

A. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

B. Erikson's Stages of Development

C. Gordon's Functional Health Patterns

D. Freud's Psychosexual Stages

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Gordon's Functional Health Patterns (Option C) provide a comprehensive and holistic framework for patient assessment, organizing data into 11 categories such as nutritional-metabolic, activity-exercise, sleep-rest, and coping-stress tolerance patterns. Maslow's (A) and Erikson's (B) theories are developmental and motivational, while Freud's (D) focuses on personality development, none serving as primary assessment frameworks in the same way as Gordon's.

Which organization is responsible for developing and standardizing nursing diagnoses that nurses use to identify patient problems?

A. American Nurses Association (ANA)

B. National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN)

C. North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International (NANDA)

D. World Health Organization (WHO)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International (NANDA) (Option C) is the professional organization responsible for developing, refining, and promoting a standardized terminology for nursing diagnoses, which are used to identify patient problems amenable to nursing intervention. ANA (A) is a professional organization, NCSBN (B) oversees licensing, and WHO (D) is a global health agency.

A nurse uses a standardized classification system to select appropriate nursing treatments for a patient's identified problems. This system is known as:

A. Nursing Minimum Data Set (NMDS)

B. Nursing Outcomes Classification (NOC)

C. Nursing Interventions Classification (NIC)

D. Clinical Care Classification (CCC)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The Nursing Interventions Classification (NIC) (Option C) is a comprehensive, standardized classification of nursing treatments or actions that nurses perform on behalf of clients. NMDS (A) is for data collection. NOC (B) defines patient outcomes. CCC (D) is another classification system, but NIC is specifically focused on interventions.

Which standardized classification system helps nurses evaluate the effectiveness of their care by providing a classification of patient, family, and community outcomes?

A. Nursing Interventions Classification (NIC)

B. Nursing Minimum Data Set (NMDS)

C. Nursing Outcomes Classification (NOC)

D. Omaha System

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The Nursing Outcomes Classification (NOC) (Option C) is a standardized classification system that describes patient, family, and community outcomes sensitive to nursing intervention. It provides criteria for measuring the effectiveness of nursing care. NIC (A) classifies interventions, while NMDS (B) focuses on data collection, and the Omaha System (D) is a complete practice and documentation system.

A nurse performs a detailed assessment covering a patient's physical, psychosocial, spiritual, and cultural aspects upon admission to the hospital. This is best described as a:

A. Focused assessment

B. Emergency assessment

C. Comprehensive health assessment

D. Shift assessment

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A Comprehensive health assessment (Option C) involves a thorough evaluation of a patient's physical and psychosocial health status, typically performed upon admission, covering physiological, psychological, socio-cultural, developmental, and spiritual aspects. A focused assessment (A) targets a specific problem. An emergency assessment (B) is rapid and life-saving. A shift assessment (D) is performed at the beginning of each shift.

When performing a health assessment on an infant, the nurse prioritizes speaking with the parents and observing play, rather than asking direct questions. This demonstrates consideration for:

A. Cultural preferences

B. Lifespan considerations in health assessment

C. Economic factors

D. Personal beliefs

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Tailoring assessment approaches based on a patient's age and developmental stage, such as interacting with parents and observing play for an infant, demonstrates an understanding of Lifespan considerations in health assessment (Option B). Infants cannot answer direct questions, so the assessment method must adapt to their developmental capabilities. Cultural preferences (A), economic factors (C), and personal beliefs (D) are other considerations but not the primary reason for this approach with an infant.

Accurate and systematic recording of all assessment findings is essential for continuity of care and legal purposes. This practice is known as:

A. Health Assessment Documentation

B. Patient self-report

C. Informal charting

D. Verbal reporting only

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The accurate and systematic recording of assessment findings in the patient's record is known as Health Assessment Documentation (Option A). This practice is critical for ensuring continuity of care, communication among the healthcare team, and serves as a legal record of care. Patient self-report (B) is a source of information. Informal charting (C) and verbal reporting only (D) are not acceptable or comprehensive documentation practices.

A nurse is performing a physical examination on a patient with abdominal pain. What is the correct order of physical exam techniques for the abdomen?

A. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation

B. Palpation, inspection, auscultation, percussion

C. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation

D. Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: For an abdominal assessment, the correct order of physical exam techniques is Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, and Palpation (IAPP) (Option C). Auscultation is performed before percussion and palpation to avoid altering bowel sounds and producing false findings by stimulating peristalsis through manipulation. For all other body systems, the order is typically Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation (IPPA).

Which physical assessment technique involves using the hands to feel for texture, temperature, moisture, organ location and size, and any tenderness or masses?

A. Inspection

B. Palpation

C. Percussion

D. Auscultation

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The physical assessment technique that involves using the sense of touch, often with the hands, to feel for characteristics such as texture, temperature, moisture, organ location and size, and presence of tenderness or masses is Palpation (Option B). Inspection (A) is visual observation. Percussion (C) involves tapping to produce sounds. Auscultation (D) involves listening, often with a stethoscope.