NYS EMT Practice Test (2025) ACTUAL EXAM (TESTING REAL EXAM QUESTIONS) AND VERIFIED ANSWERS (MULTIPLE CHOICES) |COMPLETE SOLUTIONS |A+ GRADED |100% CORRECT!!

EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the:

A) National Registry of EMTs

B) individual state's EMS protocols

C) National Association of EMTs

D) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)

D) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)

While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. What route of transmission does this scenario describe?

A) direct contact

B) indirect contact

C) airborne transmission

D) vector-borne transmission

B) indirect contact

What type of stress reaction occurs when an EMT is exposed to many insignificant stressors over a period of several months or years?

A) acute stress reaction

B) cumulative stress reaction

C) posttraumatic stress reaction

D) critical incident stress reaction

B) cumulative stress reaction

To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should always:

A) transport patients to the hospital of their choice

B) provide competent care that meets current standards

C) use universal precautions with every patient encounter

D) utilize at least four personnel when moving a patient

B) provide competent care that meets current standards

Which of the following is NOT considered to be protected health information (PHI)?

A) patient history

B) treatment rendered

C) location of the call

D) assessment findings

C) location of the call

The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the:

A) EMT oath

B) code of ethics

C) standard of care

D) scope of practice

C) standard of care

Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence?

A) transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will

B) deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury

C) transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training

D) providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs

B) deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury

Ethnocentrism is defined as:

A) understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently

B) suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question

C) subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you feel that yours are more acceptable

D) considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture

D) considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture

The patient care report (PCR) ensures:

A) research data

B) legal protection

C) quality assurance

D) continuity of care

D) continuity of care

Immediately after being dispatched to a residence for an elderly patient with diabetic complications, you should:

A) confirm with dispatch that you received the call information

B) ask the dispatcher to obtain a medical history from the caller

C) ask the dispatcher if the patient is conscious or unconscious

D) request that law enforcement secure the scene before you arrive

A) confirm with dispatch that you received the call information

Medical control gives you an order that seems inappropriate for the patient's condition. After confirming that you heard the physician correctly, you should:

A) carry out the order and then carefully document it on the run form

B) advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification

C) state that you will not carry out the order because it is inappropriate

D) obtain consent from the patient and then carry out the order as usual

B) advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification

Which of the following statements regarding standing orders is MOST correct?

A) Standing orders have less legal authority than orders given via radio

B) Standing orders require you to contact medical control first

C) Standing orders only highlight the care that you may provide

D) Standing orders should be followed when physician contact is not possible

D) Standing orders should be followed when physician contact is not possible

The nose, chin, umbilicus (navel), and spine are examples of _____ anatomic structures.

A) midline

B) proximal

C) superior

D) midaxillary

A) midline

A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the:

A) proximal forearm

B) superior forearm

C) dorsal forearm

D) distal forearm

D) distal forearm

The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline or center of the body is:

A) lateral

B) medial

C) midaxillary

D) midclavicular

B) medial

The topographic term used to describe the part of the body that is nearer to the feet is:

A) dorsal

B) inferior

C) internal

D) superior

B) inferior

Movement or motion away from the body's midline is called:

A) flexion

B) extension

C) adduction

D) abduction

D) abduction

A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being:

A) medial

B) proximal

C) bilateral

D) unilateral

C) bilateral

The leaf-shaped flap of tissue that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is called the:

A) uvula

B) epiglottis

C) vallecula

D) pharynx

B) epiglottis

The amount of air that remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called:

A) tidal volume

B) residual volume

C) inspiratory reserve volume

D) expiratory reserve volume

B) residual volume

Which of the following statements regarding agonal respirations is correct?

A) Agonal respirations result in excessive tidal volume

B) Agonal respirations typically occur before the heart stops

C) Agonal respirations are ineffective and need to be assisted

D) Agonal respirations are characterized by fast irregular breaths

C) Agonal respirations are ineffective and need to be assisted

Deoxygenated blood from the abdomen, pelvis, and lower extremities is returned to the right atrium via the:

A) common iliac vein

B) coronary sinus vein

C) inferior vena cava

D) superior vena cava

C) inferior vena cava

What is the function of platelets?

A) initial formation of a blood clot

B) transport of oxygen and nutrients

C) defense against invading organisms

D) transport of cellular waste materials

A) initial formation of a blood clot

The average adult has approximately _____ of blood in his or her body.

A) 3L

B) 4L

C) 5L

D) 6L

D) 6L

The central nervous system is composed of the:

A) brain and spinal cord

B) brain and sensory nerves

C) motor and sensory nerves

D) spinal cord and sensory nerves

A) brain and spinal cord

All necessary life functions are coordinated in what part of the brain?

A) cerebrum

B) gray matter

C) cerebellum

D) brain stem

D) brain stem

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin?

A) sensory reception

B) temperature regulation

C) metabolic coordination

D) pressure and pain perception

C) metabolic coordination

You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that:

A) small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times

B) assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs

C) the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction

D) an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction

A) small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times

A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should:

A) obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents

B) inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible

C) avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering

D) recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adults

B) inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible

The term "pharmacology" is MOST accurately defined as:

A) the study of drugs that are produced illegally

B) the study of how medications affect the brain

C) the study of drugs and their actions on the body

D) the study of drug excretion from the human body

C) the study of drugs and their actions on the body

A drug is contraindicated for a patient when it:

A) is used to treat a multitude of conditions

B) may cause harm or have no positive effect

C) produces actions other than the desired ones

D) is used to treat a specific medical condition

B) may cause harm or have no positive effect

After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n):

A) side effect

B) untoward effect

C) therapeutic effect

D) unpredictable effect

A) side effect

Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are brand (trade) names for the generic medication:

A) aspirin

B) nitrostat

C) ibuprofen

D) acetaminophen

C) ibuprofen

The _____ of a medication usually dictates the route by which it will be administered.

A) type

B) form

C) class

D) name

B) form

Which of the following statements regarding the metered-dose inhaler (MDI) is correct?

A) MDIs are contraindicated for patients with asthma or emphysema

B) MDIs are most commonly used by patients with cardiovascular disease

C) An MDI delivers the same amount of medication every time it is used

D) Shaking an MDI prior to use will cause deactivation of the medication

C) An MDI delivers the same amount of medication every time it is used

A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should:

A) check drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current

B) contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did

C) reassess the patient and document her response to the medication

D) administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress

C) reassess the patient and document her response to the medication

You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient high-flow oxygen, you should attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should:

A) notify dispatch and request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene so they can administer epinephrine to the patient

B) administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital

C) elevate the patient's legs 6" to 12", keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route

D) immediately load the patient into the ambulance, begin tra

B) administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital

You are treating a middle-aged man with chest discomfort. He has a history of three previous heart attacks and takes nitroglycerin as needed for chest pain. You have standing orders to administer aspirin to patients with suspected cardiac-related chest pain or discomfort. While your partner is preparing to give oxygen to the patient, you should:

A) confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and dose given

B) contact medical control, apprise him or her of the patient's chief complaint and vital signs, and request permission to give him aspirin

C) ensure that the patient's systolic blood pressure is at least 100 mm Hg since aspirin dilates the blood vessels and can cause a drop in blood pressure

D) assist the patient in taking one of his prescribed nitroglycerin, asses his vital signs, and give him aspirin if he is still experiencing chest discom

A) confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and dose given

In _____ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner.

A) peer-assisted

B) patient-assisted

C) EMT-administered

D) paramedic-administered

A) peer-assisted

A 49-year-old male with an extensive cardiac history presents with 2 hours of crushing chest pain and shortness of breath. He is pale and diaphoretic and tells you that he feels like he is going to die. His medications include nitroglycerin, sildenafil (Viagra), and enalapril (Vasotec). His blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition, to administering 100% oxygen, you should:

A) obtain physician approval to give the nitroglycerin

B) place him in a supine position and transport at once

C) administer one nitroglycerin and call medical control

D) ask him if he took his Viagra within the past 24 hours

D) ask him if he took his Viagra within the past 24 hours

The medical term for an extremely low blood glucose level is:

A) hypoglycemia

B) hyperglycemia

C) hypotension

D) hypertension

A) hypoglycemia

A 37-year-old male is found unconscious in his car. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and labored. As you and your partner are assessing and treating the patient, a police officer hands you a medication named Alupent, which he found in the backseat of the patient's car. This medication suggests that the patient has a history of:

A) asthma

B) heart disease

C) hypertension

D) allergic reactions

A) asthma

Which of the following is an example of a symptom?

A) cyanosis

B) headache

C) tachycardia

D) hypertension

B) headache

Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms?

A) a 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness

B) a 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears

C) a 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea

D) a 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis

D) a 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis

While en route to the scene of a shooting, the dispatcher advises you that the caller states that the perpetrator has fled the scene. You should:

A) ask the dispatcher if he or she knows the location of the perpetrator

B) confirm this information with law enforcement personnel at the scene

C) request law enforcement personnel if the scene is unsafe upon arrival

D) proceed to the scene as usual but exercise extreme caution upon arrival

B) confirm this information with law enforcement personnel at the scene

You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby table. You should:

A) immediately cease all patient care, carefully back out of the residence, and request law enforcement assistance

B) direct your partner to move the gun to a safe area and then advise the patient that his weapon has been secured

C) document the presence of the weapon, including its specific location, and continue your assessment of the patient

D) position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance

D) position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance

The MOST effective way to determine whether your patient's problem is medical or traumatic in origin is to:

A) perform a careful and thorough assessment

B) establish the patient's medical history early

C) take note of the patient's general appearance

D) ask if bystanders are familiar with the patient

A) perform a careful and thorough assessment

During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:

A) any time before you load the patient into the ambulance

B) after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding

C) immediately after completion of your primary assessment

D) upon exiting the ambulance, but before actual patient contact

D) upon exiting the ambulance, but before actual patient contact

The goal of the primary assessment is to:

A) determine if the patient's problem is medical or trauma

B) identify patients that require transport to a trauma center

C) determine the need to perform a head-to-toe assessment

D) identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions

D) identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions

Which of the following patients does NOT have an altered mental status?

A) a patient with an acute allergic reaction and dizziness

B) a diabetic who opens his eyes when you ask questions

C) a patient with a head injury who is slow to answer questions

D) a patient who overdosed and moans when he is touched

A) a patient with an acute allergic reaction and dizziness

A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is:

A) 10

B) 12

C) 13

D) 14

C) 13

Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs?

A) evaluating the patient's chest for cyanosis

B) applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the SpO2

C) auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope

D) looking for the presence of accessory muscle use

C) auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope

After performing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patient who has a pulse, you should:

A) place him or her in the recovery position

B) provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance

C) assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity

D) suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct

D) suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _____ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _____ beats/min.

A) 60, 100

B) 50, 110

C) 40, 120

D) 30, 130

A) 60, 100

A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be:

A) weak

B) strong

C) regular

D) irregular

C) regular

Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be:

A) pink, warm, and dry

B) pale, cool, and moist

C) pink, warm, and moist

D) flushed, cool, and dry

A) pink, warm, and dry

What part of the patient assessment process focuses on obtaining additional information about the patient's chief complaint and any medical problems he or she may have?

A) history taking

B) general impression

C) primary assessment

D) secondary assessment

A) history taking

Upon arriving at the scene of a patient with difficulty breathing, you determine that the scene is safe. You enter the residence and find the patient sitting in a chair in obvious distress. Your first action should be to:

A) ask the patient what's wrong

B) obtain a set of baseline vital signs

C) assess the patient's airway status

D) introduce yourself to the patient

D) introduce yourself to the patient

The goal of the full-body scan that is performed during the secondary assessment is to:

A) detect and treat all non-life-threatening injuries

B) assess only the parts of the body that are injured

C) definitively rule out significant internal injuries

D) locate injuries not found in the primary assessment

D) locate injuries not found in the primary assessment

When auscultating the blood pressure in a patient's upper extremity, you should place the diaphragm (head) of the stethoscope over the _____ artery.

A) radial

B) apical

C) femoral

D) brachial

D) brachial

Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of the chest wall?

A) multiple rib fractures that cause a marked deformity of the chest wall

B) a marked decrease in chest wall movement due to abdominal breathing

C) only one section of the chest rises on inspiration while another area falls

D) one side of the chest wall move opposite the direction of the other

C) only one section of the chest rises on inspiration while another area falls

The leaf-shaped structure located superior to the larynx is called the:

A) epiglottis

B) vallecula

C) cricoid ring

D) thyroid cartilage

A) epiglottis

The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the:

A) bronchioles

B) alveolar sacs

C) apex of the lung

D) pulmonary capillaries

B) alveolar sacs

The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called:

A) diffusion

B) ventilation

C) respiration

D) oxygenation

B) ventilation

Hypoxia is MOST accurately defined as:

A) low venous oxygen levels

B) a decrease in arterial oxygen levels

C) an increase in carbon dioxide in the blood

D) inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells

D) inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells

The hypoxic drive - the primary stimulus to breathe for patients with certain chronic respiratory diseases - is influenced by:

A) high blood oxygen levels

B) low blood oxygen levels

C) low blood carbon dioxide levels

D) high blood carbon dioxide levels

B) low blood oxygen levels

In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway?A) a 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree

B) a 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed

C) a 45-year-old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet

D) a 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma

B) a 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed

To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the:

A) corner of the mouth to the earlobe

B) center of the mouth to the posterior ear

C) corner of the mouth to the superior ear

D) angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth

A) corner of the mouth to the earlobe

You and your partner are treating a 66-year-old man who experienced a sudden onset of respiratory distress. He is conscious but is unable to follow simple verbal commands. Further assessment reveals that his breathing is severely labored and his oxygen saturation is 80%. You should:

A) attempt to insert an oropharyngeal airway

B) assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device

C) apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device and monitor his breathing

D) apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask

B) assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device

Shock is the result of:

A) hypoperfusion to the cells of the body

B) the body's maintenance of homeostasis

C) temporary dysfunction of a major organ

D) widespread constriction of the blood vessels

A) hypoperfusion to the cells of the body

Neurogenic shock occurs when:

A) failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation

B) the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging

C) there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container

D) massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury

A) failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation

A 59-year-old male presents with severe vomiting and diarrhea of 3 days' duration. He is confused and diaphoretic, and radial pulses are absent. His blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg. After applying 100% supplemental oxygen, you should:

A) perform a head-to-toe exam

B) allow him to drink plain water

C) obtain a repeat blood pressure in 5 minutes

D) prepare for immediate transport

D) prepare for immediate transport

A 27-year-old male was stabbed in the chest during a disagreement at a poker game. As you approach him, you see that a knife is impaled in his chest. Before you make physical contact with the patient, it is MOST important to:

A) form a general impression

B) call for an ALS ambulance

C) follow standard precautions

D) ask bystanders what happened

C) follow standard precautions

A 56-year-old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient's wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patient's present condition is:

A) acute myocardial infarction

B) cardiogenic hypoperfusion

C) severe septic hypoperfusion

D) a ruptured aortic aneurysm

B) cardiogenic hypoperfusion

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to:

A) determine if she was injured when she fainted

B) provide emotional support regarding her sister

C) advise her that she needs to go to the hospital

D) obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history

A) determine if she was injured when she fainted

After _____ minutes without oxygen, brain damage is likely.

A) 2

B) 4

C) 5

D) 6

D) 6

After establishing that an adult patient is unresponsive, you should:

A) open the airway

B) assess for breathing

C) check for a carotid pulse

D) attach an automated external defibrillator (AED)

A) open the airway

Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should:

A) apply the AED pad at least 1" away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns

B) continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch

C) move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads

D) remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads

D) remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads

Which of the following maneuvers should be used to open a patient's airway when a spinal injury is suspected?

A) jaw-thrust

B) tongue-jaw lift

C) head tilt-neck lift

D) head tilt-chin lift

A) jaw-thrust

The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes:

A) performing five back blows and five abdominal thrusts

B) visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction

C) administering oxygen and transporting immediately

D) advising the patient not to make any attempts to cough

C) administering oxygen and transporting immediately

In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient:

A) almost exclusively focuses on physical signs that indicate the patient is experiencing a problem

B) is focused on the nature of illness, the patient's chief complaint, and his or her symptoms

C) requires a thorough head-to-toe exam that involves a detailed assessment of all body systems

D) is not as complex for the EMT because most patients typically present with classic symptoms

B) is focused on the nature of illness, the patient's chief complaint, and his or her symptoms

A 58-year-old man complains of chest discomfort and nausea. He is conscious and alert; his blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, his pulse is 104 beats/min, and his respirations are 16 breaths/min. Your partner has applied supplemental oxygen. Prior to assisting the patient with one of his prescribed nitroglycerin tablets, you ask him if he takes medication to treat erectile dysfunction and he tells you that he does. You should:

A) avoid giving him nitroglycerin and transport him at once

B) ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it

C) recall that erectile dysfunction drugs can cause hypertension if given with nitroglycerin

D) administer his nitroglycerin and then reassess his blood pressure

C) recall that erectile dysfunction drugs can cause hypertension if given with nitroglycerin

Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as:

A) shortness of breath or difficulty breathing

B) a complete cessation of respiratory effort

C) a marked increase in the exhalation phase

D) labored breathing with reduced tidal volume

A) shortness of breath or difficulty breathing

In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?

A) alveoli

B) trachea

C) bronchi

D) capillaries

A) alveoli

An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with:

A) an obstructed airway

B) adequate air exchange

C) respiratory difficulty

D) respiratory insufficiency

B) adequate air exchange

Asthma is caused by a response of the:

A) immune system

B) endocrine system

C) respiratory system

D) cardiovascular system

A) immune system

A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him 100% oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is:

A) albuterol

B) epinephrine

C) an antihistamine

D) a beta-antagonist

B) epinephrine

Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the:

A) right atrium

B) right ventricle

C) left atrium

D) left ventricle

A) right atrium

Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle:

A) enters the systemic circulation

B) flows into the pulmonary arteries

C) has a high concentration of oxygen

D) was received directly from the aorta

B) flows into the pulmonary arteries

Which of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood?

A) superior vena cava

B) pulmonary arteries

C) inferior vena cava

D) pulmonary veins

D) pulmonary veins

What is the function of the left atrium?

A) It ejects oxygenated blood into the aorta

B) It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs

C) It receives blood from the pulmonary arteries

D) It receives oxygenated blood from the vena cava

B) It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs

The left ventricle has the thickest walls because it:

A) pumps blood to the lungs to be reoxygenated

B) uses less oxygen than other chambers of the heart

C) pumps blood into the aorta and systemic circulation

D) receives blood directly from the systemic circulation

C) pumps blood into the aorta and systemic circulation

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the:

A) bundle of His

B) coronary sinus

C) sinoatrial (SA) node

D) atrioventricular (AV) node

C) sinoatrial (SA) node

The inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart from all of the following areas, EXCEPT the:

A) brain

B) kidneys

C) abdomen

D) legs

A) brain

Cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because:

A) a rapid heart beat causes a decrease in the strength of cardiac contractions

B) the volume of blood that returns to the heart is not sufficient with fast heart rates

C) as the heart rate increases, more blood is pumped from the ventricles than the atria

D) there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely

D) there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely

Narrowing of the coronary arteries due to a buildup of fatty deposits is called:

A) angina pectoris

B) arteriosclerosis

C) acute ischemia

D) atherosclerosis

D) atherosclerosis

The MOST common reason that many people experiencing AMI do not seek immediate medical attention is because they:

A) are elderly

B) are in denial

C) cannot afford it

D) do not trust EMTs

B) are in denial

The three major parts of the brain are the:

A) cerebellum, medulla, and occiput

B) brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord

C) midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord

D) cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem

D) cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem

The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the:

A) brain stem

B) cerebrum

C) cerebellum

D) cerebral cortex

A) brain stem

Which of the following MOST accurately describes what the patient will experience during the postictal state that follows a seizure?

A) hyperventilation and hypersalivation

B) a rapidly improving level of consciousness

C) confusion and fatigue

D) a gradually decreasing level of consciousness

C) confusion and fatigue