Boards Practice - All Topics

Scatter radiation does NOT affect:

A. visibility of detail

B. image contrast

C. recorded spatial resolution

D. occupational dose

c

The BEST communication method for dealing with preschool age children when having radiographic procedures that may be painful is to:

A. describe the sensation they may feel

B. reassure them it will not hurt

C. let them know you will only need one x-ray

D. tell them they can have a treat afterwards

a

Myocardial infarction is also known as:

A. spasm

B. cerebrovascular accident

C. heart attack

D. pulmonary edema

c

What does a sudden spike in a tech's DDE suggest about a particular monitoring period if there has been no change in their job duties?

A. increased operational efficiency

B. a possible accident involving radiation exposure

C. improved compliance with radiation safety

D. decreased usage of radiation equipment

b

During fluoroscopic exam, which actions would most effectively reduce the patients dose area product (DAP)?

A. decrease distance between patient and IR

B. increase distance between patient and IR

C. using a higher kVp and lower mA settings

D. using a lower kVp and higher mA settings

c

Which of the following devices acts as a switch to release the electric charge collected by the detector element?

A. CCD

B. photodiode

C. scintillator layer

D. TFT

d

The ascending colon is found on the ___________ side.

A. left

B. right

b

Which direction does the diaphragm move on inspiration?

A. anteriorly

B. inferiorly

C. posteriorly

D. superiorly

b

What is the CR for an AP scapula?

A. coracoid process

B. 2 inches inferior to the coracoid process

C. 2 inches medial to the acromion process

D. 2 inches medial to the superior angle

b

Which 3 must be included in a patient's medical record?

A. procedure orders

B. medical history

C. informed consent

D. family history of disease

a, b, c

When performing a PA Caldwell of the sinuses, how should the CR be directed if the OML is perpendicular to the IR?

A. 15 cephalad

B. 15 caudad

C. 25 caudad

D. 25 cephalad

b

How quickly do nearly all life threatening contrast reactions occur after injection?

A. 1 minute

B. 10 minutes

C. 20 minutes

D. 4 hours

c

The formation of urine begins in the:

A. glomerulus

B. loop of henle

C. minor calyces

D. proximal convoluted tubule

a

The fill factor of the DR image receptor is the:

A. TFT portion

B. sensitive portion of the detector element compared to the non sensitive portion

C. full dimensions of the DR image receptor

D. storage capacitor portion of the DR image receptor

b

Study performed to evaluate size, shape, and location of the distal esophagus, stomach, and proximal small bowel.

A. single contrast UGI

B. double contrast UGI

C. small bowel series

D. esophagogram

a

The measurement of the rate at which electrons flow is known as:

A. resistance

B. voltage

C. amperage

D. power

c

In an oblique L-spine image, the nose of the scottie dog represents the:

A. lamina

B. pars interarticularis

C. pedicle

D. transverse process

d

Which personnel dosimeter uses aluminum oxide as the absorbing material?

A. optically stimulable luminescent dosimeter (OSL)

B. film badge

C. thermoluminiscent dosimeter (TLD)

D. pocket dosimeter

a

Normal range of creatinine:

A. 0.7 - 1.5 mg/dL

B. 1.0 - 2.5 mg/dL

C. 0.2 - 0.9 mg/dL

D. 0.9 - 1.2 mg'dL

a

Normal BUN range:

A. 0.7 - 1.5 mg/dL

B. 10 - 21 mg/dL

C. 7 - 21 mg/dL

D. .7 - .22 mg/dL

c

For an axiolateral view of the mandibular symphysis portion of the mandible, what position should the patient's head be placed?

A. lateral

B. 10 degrees toward IR

C. 35 degrees toward IR

D. 45 degrees toward IR

d

Term for condition where the lung alveoli become distended and unable to adequately exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide:

A. emphysema

B. pneumonia

C. rhinorrhea

D. COPD

a

Which are the most sensitive to radiation?

A. GI tissues

B. nerve cells

C. cerebrovascular cells

D. blood forming tissues

d

An off-focus error occurs when the grid:

A. is used at the wrong SID

B. shifts due to patient position

C. is placed upside down

D. is not centered to primary beam

a

A histogram in DR refers to:

A. number of brightness levels that can be assigned to a pixel

B. size of digital matrix

C. frequency of recorded exposure values

D. range of exposure values that can be detected by the IR

c

What is the alternative term for the technique "enteroclysis"?

A. speech dysfunction study

B. double contrast UGI

C. small intestine enema

D. LGI study

c

What is the dose limit for the lens of the eye for occupational workers per the NCRP 116?

A. 2 mSv

B. 50 mSv

C. 150 mSv

D. 250 mSv

c

An image has acceptable exposure. If the kVp is decreased by 15%, how should the mAs be changed to maintain the IR exposure?

A. mAs increased by factor of 4

B. mAs decreased by factor of 2

C. mAs increased by 15%

D. mAs increased by factor of 2

d

Formula for magnification factor:

A. MF = SOD/OID

B. MF = SID/SOD

C. MF = SOD/SID

D. MF = SID/OID

b

Best practice to ensure optimal image quality and minimize patient exposure in DR?

A. increasing exp time

B. using lowest possible mAs

C. ensuring proper pt position

D. use a higher grid ratio

c

For an AP axial urinary bladder during a cystogram, what is the typical CR angle?

A. 5-10 caudad

B. 10-15 caudad

C. 15-20 cephalad

D. 20-25 cephalad

b

Anatomic structures contained in the folds of the small intestine:

A. cilia

B. haustra

C. rugae

D. villi

d

Which of the following would most likely require recalibration of the AEC system?

A. after every 100 patients

B. after replacing the xray tube

C. when MIMPS is upgraded

D. when switching between adult and pediatric patients

b

What unit can be used for the biological risk of exposure to radiation?

A. becquerel

B. coulomb/kg

C. gray

D. sievert

d

At what level does oxygen saturation affect the brain?

A. 75-80%

B. 80-85%

C. 90-100%

b

Term that can be used for tissue interactions:

A. hormetic

B. deterministic

C. radiation effect

D. stochastic

b

The suspensory muscle of the duodenum or ligament of Treitz is a landmark for:

A. duodenal bulb

B. caudate love of liver

C. duodenojejunal flexure

D. pyloric sphincter

c

The ability of the xray photon to penetrate matter:

A. attenuation

B. exposure

C. quality

D. quantity

c

Delivers de-oxygenated blood away from heart into lungs for oxygenation:

A. IVC

B. pulmonary artery

C. pulmonary vein

D. SVC

b

Effect associated with a specific dose threshold:

A. deterministic

B. somatic

C. stochastic

D. genetic

a

Which hospital affiliation created a document mandating that a patient has the right to review their records and access info to ensure everything is correct and complete?

A. American Hospital Association (AHA)

B. American Medical Association (AMA)

C. US Dept. of Health and Human Services

D. Joint Commission

a

Main purpose of a SNR test in digital radiography:

A. determine efficiency of IR

B. measure accuracy of Anatomical markers

C. assess clarity and sharpness of image

D. evaluate the stability of the power supply

c

Must be worn when entering the room of droplet isolation:

A. head covering

B. mask

C. N-95

D. shoe covers

b

Device that converts light to electrons in an FPD:

A. a-Se

B. photodiode

C. scintillator layer

D. TFT

b

Grid characteristics that would minimize pt dose while maintaining quality:

A. + grid frequency, - grid ratio

B. - grid frequency, - grid ratio

C. + grid frequency, + grid ratio

D. - grid frequency, + grid ratio

a

Main reason for integrating advanced data compression techniques:

A. enhance detail clarity

B. decrease field size without compromising data integrity

C. improve contrast resolution

D. increase speed of image acquisition

b

Minimum electron energy to create a characteristic photon:

A. 65 keV

B. 70 keV

C. 75 keV

D. 80 keV

b

CR angle for AP axial of the urinary bladder during a cystogram:

A. 10-15 cephalad

B. 10-15 caudad

C. 20-25 cephalad

D. 15-20 caudad

b

Appearing as multiple descended loops of small and large bowel:

A. ascites

B. ileus

C. intussusception

D. perforation

b

What knee position would show superimposition of the proximal tibia and fibula?

A. medial oblique

B. lateral oblique

b

How should the patient be positioned in a PA axial Holmblad method?

A. prone, 50-60 degrees of knee flexion

B. kneeling or partially standing with 60-70 degrees of knee flexion

C. standing with 45 degrees of knee flexion

D. supine with 40-45 degrees of knee flexion

b

On average, the esophagus ends at what vertebral level?

A. T9

B. T11

C. L2

D. L3

b

Formula for eq. dose:

A. absorbed dose / radiation weighting factor

B. absorbed dose / tissue weighting factor

C. absorbed dose x radiation weighting factor

D. absorbed dose x tissue weighting factor

c

CR for AP scout during HSG:

A. pubic symphysis

B. 2 inches above pubic symphysis

C. iliac crest

D. 2 inches above ASIS

b

AP oblique ribs to demonstrate left axillary ribs:

A. RPO

B. RAO

C. LPO

D. LAO

c

Coherent interactions typically occur with a beam carrying less than:

A. 5 keV

B. 15 keV

C. 10 keV

D. 20keV

c

Oxygen depleted blood is pumped back into the heart into:

A. L atrium

B. L ventricle

C. R atrium

D. R ventricle

c

Outermost layer of esophagus:

A. fibrous

B. longitudinal muscular

C. mucosa

D. smooth muscle

a

Typical dosage of contrast for pediatrics:

A. .05-1.0 mL/kg

B. 1.0-1.5 mL/kg

C. 1.5-2.0 mL/kg

D. 2.0-2.5 mL/kg

c

Structure found in the folds on the small intestine:

A. cilia

B. haustra

C. rugae

D. villi

d

SID is:

A. collimator to pt

B. collimator to IR

C. actual focal spot to IR

D. actual focal spot to pt

c

Unit for biological risk of exposure:

A. becquerel

B. coulomb/kg

C. gray

D. sievert

d

In a contrast enema study, AP or PA axial projections can demonstrate the _________ area of the colon.

A. ascending colon

B. cecum

C. rectosigmoid

D. transverse colon

c

Normal creatinine levels:

A. .7 - 1.2

B. 1.5 - 2

C. .5 - 2.0

D. 1.5 - 2.5

a

Obliquity for oblique SI joint:

A. 35 - 40

B. 25 - 30

C. 15 - 20

D. 45

b

The right lung has _____ lobes.

A. 2

B. 3

C. 1

D. 4

b

Recommended minimum filtration in the useful beam:

A. 1.0 mm Al/Eq

B. 1.5 mm Al/Eq

C. 2.0 mm Al/Eq

D. 2.5 mm Al/Eq

d

For a patient with ascites needing a KUB, what technical adjustment should be made?

A. - mAs 30-50%

B. + mAs 30-50%

C. - kvp 15%

D. + kVp 15%

b

Barium and Iodine are ___ contrast agents.

A. positive

B. negative

a

At what level does the spinal cord terminate:

A. L3-4

B. L5-S1

C. L1-2

c

Bony landmark on the proximal hip that serves as an attachment point for several hip muscles:

A. greater trochanter

B. lesser trochanter

C. lateral epicondyle

D. medial epicondyle

a

For a PA axial (Camp-Coventry) projection of the intercondylar fossa, what degree of knee flexion is recommended?

A. 30-40 degrees

B. 40-50 degrees

C. 50-60 degrees

D. 60-70 degrees

b

In which bone are the optic foramina located?

A. Ethmoid bone

B. Frontal bone

C. Palatine bone

D. Sphenoid bone

d

Which ligament attaches to the anterior inferior iliac spine

(AIIS)?

A. Sacrospinous ligament

B. Inguinal ligament

C. iliofemoral ligament

D. sacrotuberous ligament

c

Which of the following conditions would appear on a radiograph as multiple distended loops of small and large bowel?

A. Ascites

B. Ileus

C. Pneumoperitoneum

D. Rectal perforation

b

In which component does the quantization process take place?

A. Pre-processing algorithm

B. Post-processing algorithm

C. Spatial localization

D. Analog-to-digital conversion (ADC)

d

Cumulative effective dose limits includes: (Select two)

A. Radiation exposure from natural background radiation

B. Exposure acquired when a worker undergoes medical imaging procedures

C. The possibility of internal exposure

D. The possibility of external exposure

c, d

The last link in the cycle of infection is the:

A. Portal of entry

B. Portal of exit

C. Susceptible host

D. Mode of transmission

c

Which of the following factors may decrease the susceptibility of the host to infection? (Select all that apply)

A. Malnutrition

B. Genetic factors

C. Gastric acidity

D. Mucous membranes

E. Cilia of the respiratory tract

b, c, d, e

The digital imaging and communications in medicine (DICOM) standard has established two classes of information, including:

A. Provider class and patient class

B. Analog class and digital class

C. Object class and service class

D. Software class and hardware

c

What is the dose equivalent limit to the fetus of a pregnant radiographer for the gestation period?

A. 1 mSv

B. 2.5 mSv

C. 5 mSv

D. 25 mSv

c

The obturator foramen is formed by the (select 2):

A. ilium

B. pubis

C. ischium

D. femur

b, c

What dose level would require individual occupational radiation monitoring?

A. 1 millisievert in any single year

B. 5 millisievert in any single year

C. 10 millisievert in any single year

D. 50 millisievert in any single

b

Which of the following is true of a stochastic radiation response?

A. Includes cancer and genetic abnormalities

B. Epilation is an example of this effect

C. Implies that the higher the dose, the more severe the effects

D. Is also called deterministic effects

a

The effective dose limit, as defined by the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurement (NCRP), takes into account not only the type of radiation but also the:

A. tissue weighting factors

B. RBE

C. oxygen saturation level

D. HVL

a

Which of the following would apply 120 electrical pulses to the x-ray tube per second?

A. Self-rectified

B. Single-phase, full-wave rectified

C. Three-phase, 6 pulse

D. Three-phase, 12 pulse

b

If fluoroscopic equipment does not automatically report radiation exposure, which of the following should be documented? (Select all that apply).

A. Cumulative exposure time.

B. The number of images taken.

C. The amount of contrast media used.

D. The calculations of dose area product

a, b

A lateral projection of the ankle will demonstrate the talus:

A. Superimposing the navicular

B. Lateral to the calcaneus

C. Superior to the calcaneus

D. Anterior to the navicular

c

If a radiographer selects an incorrect anatomic part on the control panel before making an exposure, which of the following processing errors could result?

A. detector saturation

B. histogram analysis error

C. photon starvation

D. application of an improper LUT

d

To convert electrical energy to mechanical energy, it is necessary to utilize a:

A. Motor

B. Transformer

C. Generator

D. Rectifier

a

To convert mechanical energy to electrical energy, it is necessary to utilize a:

A. Motor

B. Transformer

C. Generator

D. Rectifier

c

Which type of shock can be caused by anaphylaxis?

A. cardiogenic

B. neurogenic

C. hypovolemic

D. vasogenic

d

Lethal dose in humans:

A. LD 50/30

B. LD 50/60

C. LD 50/50

D. LD 30/50

b

Which of the following describes a protracted dose of radiation?

A. One dose given at once

B. Dose delivered continuously, but at a low-dose-rate

C. A low dose divided into equal fractions separated by time

D. A high dose divided into equal fractions separated by time

b

An optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter contains:

A. Small piece of film

B. Chip of lithium fluoride

C. Aluminum oxide detector

D. Gold leaf electroscope

c

What is the annual effective dose limit established by the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP) for occupational exposure?

A. 500 mSv

B. .05 Sv

C. .5 Sv

D. 5 Sv

b

At 100 kilovoltage peak, what is the X-ray attenuation for a 0.5mm lead equivalent apron?

A. 100%

B. 90%

C. 75%

D. 66%

c

Which three of the following would have an impact on detective quantum efficiency (DQE)? (Select three)

A. IR material

B. sampling frequency

C. energy of the x-ray beam

D. SNR

E. CNR

a, c, d

Restricting the primary beam can reduce the exposure outside the radiation field up to:

A. 10%

B. 20%

C. 50%

D. 100%

d

Low-pass filtering or smoothing occurs as a:

A. local processing operation

B. point processing operation

C. geometric processing operation

D. histogram equalization

a