CSU Jackel life 102 exam 3

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156 Terms

1
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How do bacteria reproduce?

They divide

2
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Bacterial cells perform cell division by the simple process of _.

Binary fission

3
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The FtsZ protein is necessary for bacterial cells to perform:

Cell division & Septation

4
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Gametes are haploid. Haploid means that the cells contain how many sets of chromosomes?

one

5
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Chromatin, the structural component of eukaryotic chromosomes, is composed of:

DNA & Protein

6
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Bacterial cells divide to produce new cells for:

Reproduction & Population growth

7
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After a chromosome is replicated, the two copies are referred to as:

sister chromatids

8
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What protein is necessary for septation and cell division in bacteria?

FtsZ

9
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What must occur during an eukaryotic cell cycle?

  • Genome replication

  • Division of cell contents

  • Genome segregation

10
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The chromatin in eukaryotic chromosomes is composed of a complex of:

DNA & Protein

11
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In a cell's life, cell growth occurs primarily during what phase?

G1 phase

12
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The centromere contains repeated DNA sequences that can bind specific proteins. These proteins form the __, which is shaped like a disk and serves as an attachment site for __.

kinetochore, microtubule

13
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How do we refer to a replicated chromosome and its chromatids?

One chromosome made of two sister chromatids

14
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Order the stages of mitosis as they occur in the cell:

P(rophase)

P(rometaphase)

M(etaohase)

A(naphase)

T(elophase)

15
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Assembly of the spindle apparatus occurs during ___ phase of mitosis.

Prophase

16
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What is a sequence of growth, replication, and division that produces new eukaryotic cells called?

cell cycle

17
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What usually occurs during the G1 phase?

cells are growing

18
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During prometaphase, sister chromatids attach to the spindle by their ___, which are attached to the centromere region of each sister chromatid.

Kinetochores

19
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During _, the chromosomes are aligned midway between the spindle poles.

Metaphase

20
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The key event in anaphase is the simultaneous removal of __ proteins from all chromosomes.

cohesin

21
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What apparatus is broken down during telophase?

Spindle/miotic spindle

22
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During a eukaryotic cell cycle, when does the actual division of the cell body take place?

after mitosis

23
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During prometaphase, which protein complex on each sister chromatid attaches to the spindle?

kinetochore

24
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The pairs of sister chromatids align themselves in a single row along a plane half-way between the poles during which of the following phases of mitosis?

metaphase

25
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At the beginning of which of the following phases do the centromeres of sister chromatids split apart allowing sister chromatids to separate from each other?

anaphase

26
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During the stage of mitosis known as ___, gene expression resumes, as chromosomes uncoil.

telophase

27
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T or F: Cell division is complete at the end of mitosis.

False

28
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What phase of mitosis is characterized by the reformation of the nuclear envelope and the production of two separate nuclei?

telophase

29
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If the somatic cell of an organism has 22 chromosomes, its gametes will have __ chromosomes.

11

30
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A human gamete contains _ chromosomes.

23

31
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During prophase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes are held together by a complex structure called the _ complex.

synaptonemal

32
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During which stage of meiosis do synapsis and crossing over occur?

Prophase I

33
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During meiosis I, the ___ of each pair of sister chromatids for each homologue attach as a unit to microtubules from the same pole.

Kinetochores/centromeres

34
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The pulling apart of homologues occurs during anaphase of _.

Meiosis I

35
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The sister chromatids found in the daughter nuclei at the end of telophase I are not identical to each other due to which of the following?

Crossing over

36
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What is the main function of the synaptonemal complex?

hold homologous chromosomes together

37
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The brief period between meiosis I and meiosis II is also called:

interkinesis

38
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During meiosis I, the kinetochores of sister chromatids act as a:

unit, to which polar microtubules attach

39
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What are the four distinct features of meiosis I?

  • Kinetochores of sister chromatids are attached to the same pole

  • DNA replication is suppressed between meiosis I and II.

  • Sister chromatid centromeres remain connected.

  • Homologous chromosomes pair.

40
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During anaphase I what occurs?

Homologues are pulled apart

41
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The end result of meiosis I (telophase I) is that two nuclei are produced, each with ___.

a single, full set of replicated chromosomes

42
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Because it does not include an S phase, the period between meiosis I and meiosis II is often called _.

interkinesis

43
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The number of possible alignments of chromosomes in a human cell during Meiosis l is determined by using this formula: 2n. The "n" represents the _of chromosomes.

Haploid number

44
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Genetic variability in a species is generated by what?

  • Crossing over

  • Independent assortment

  • Random Fertilization

45
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If an organism has 8 chromosomes in its diploid cells, how many different gametes can it produce, solely based on independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis?

16

46
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Genetic diversity is the raw material of:

evolution

47
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In which of the following chromosomal entities are an individual's traits specified?

genes

48
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The physical appearance of colonies of Streptococcus pneumoniae is related to the presence or absence of _.

A capsule

49
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Which enzymes did Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty use in order to identify the genetic material?

RNA digesting enzymes, DNA digesting enzymes, and protein digesting enzymes

50
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Which scientists performed a simple experiment with a phage (a bacterial virus) that confirmed previous findings that DNA is the genetic material?

Hershey and Chase

51
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What are components of a nucleotide?

sugar, phosphate group, nitrogenous base

52
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Genes, which contain trait specifying information, are located on:

chromosomes

53
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Chargaff's rule indicates that the amount of A in a sample is equal to the amount of and the amount of C in a sample is equal to the amount of .

T(hymine), G(uanine)

54
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Which form (or forms) of the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae can cause disease?

The S form

55
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When trying to discover the substance responsible for transformation, Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty removed 99.98% of the ___ from their preparation and found that the transforming activity persisted.

proteins

56
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The experiments with radioactively labeled phage that showed that DNA was the genetic material were performed by:

Hershey and Chase

57
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X-ray diffraction images obtained by Rosalind Franklin were used to determine that the diameter of a DNA molecule is __.

2nm

58
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Chargaff's experiments showed that the amount of adenine in a DNA sample was always the same as the amount of __.

Thymine

59
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The backbone of a DNA strand is composed of _.

Sugars & phosphate groups

60
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The major significance of the Hershey and Chase experiments is that they:

determined that DNA in the genetic material

61
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The data from the Meselson-Stahl experiment supported the __ model of DNA replication.

semiconservative

62
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Franklin determined that the structure of DNA was helical based on:

x-ray diffraction analysis

63
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What is involved in the unwinding of DNA during replication?

Single-strand binding proteins & Helicase

64
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The partial opening of a DNA helix to form two single strands is called:

replication fork

65
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Repeating sugar and phosphate units in a single DNA strand make up its:

phosphodiester backbone

66
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Based on Meselson-Stahl's experiments, it was determined that DNA replication is:

semiconservative

67
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The enzymes in the replisome are active on:

both leading and lagging strand

68
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The enzyme uses ATP to unwind the DNA template.

Helicase

69
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The function of telomeres is to:

protect the ends of chromosomes

70
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The is a macromolecular assembly of enzymes involved in DNA replication.

replisome

71
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Let P = purple flowers and p = white, and T = tall plants and t = dwarf. If the uppercase letters represent the dominant alleles, what is the phenotype of a plant with the genotype PpTt?

purple flowers, tall

72
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If you roll a six-sided die, what is the probability of getting either a 1 or a 2 on the first AND second roll?

1/9

73
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Let R = red pigment and r = no pigment. In carnations, RR offspring make a lot of red pigment, rr offspring make no pigment, and Rr offspring make a small amount of red pigment, thus appearing pink. Pink carnations are therefore an example of:

incomplete dominance

74
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In Mendel's experiments on seed color in pea plants, when a dominant yellow seed-bearing plant was crossed with a recessive green seed-bearing plant, what was the approximate phenotypic ratio among the offspring?

All yellow, Since the yellow plant is dominant over the green plant, a homozygous dominant yellow crossed with a homozygous recessive green would lead to all of the offspring being yellow.

75
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Let P = purple flowers, p = white, T = tall plants, and t = dwarf. Of the 16 possible gamete combinations in the dihybrid cross between 2 double heterozygotes, how many would produce the phenotype white, tall?

3

76
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Let P = purple flowers, p = white, T = tall plants, and t = dwarf. Of the 16 possible gamete combinations in the dihybrid cross, 3 combinations produced the phenotype white and tall. What two plants would have to cross to make this occur?

2 double heterozygotes

77
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The physician who, in 1902, proposed a relationship between genes and the production of enzymes.

Archibald Garrod

78
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The central dogma describes:

Information flow as DNA to RNA to protein

79
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A three-nucleotide sequence in mRNA, that codes for a particular amino acid, is called

codon

80
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The AUG codon has a dual function. It serves as the _ codon and it encodes the amino acid _.

start, methionine (met)

81
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Archibald Garrod concluded that patients suffering from alkaptonuria lack the ___ necessary to catalyze the breakdown of homogentisic acid.

enzyme

82
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How many RNA polymerases do bacteria have?

A single RNA polymerase

83
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A codon is composed of:

3 nucleotides

84
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What are two functions of the AUG codon?

It encodes the amino acid methionine. It acts as a start codon.

85
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In a bacterial transcription unit, the role of the __ is to form a recognition and binding site for the RNA polymerase.

promoter

86
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How do eukaryotic transcription factors help form the initiation complex?

They recruit RNA polymerase to the promoter.

87
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Describe a major difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic mRNA transcription?

In eukaryotes, a primary transcript is first synthesized which is modified to become the mature mRNA.

88
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Eukaryotic genes may contain noncoding regions known as __ because they interrupt the sequence of a gene.

introns

89
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Identify the process the pre-mRNA undergoes to create a functional mRNA.

splicing

90
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Before it can bind to the promoter, a eukaryotic RNA polymerase II has to be recruited by __.

several transcription factors

91
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Genome

All of the DNA in a cell

92
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Proteome

All of the proteins produced in a cell

93
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Transcriptome

ChoiceAll of the RNAs produced in a cell

94
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The RNA synthesized by RNA polymerase II is known as the transcript. It is later modified into the mature mRNA.

primary

95
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What are the two functional ends of a tRNA?

acceptor stem and anticodon loop

96
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To create a functional RNA, the pre-mRNA undergoes a process known as splicing. During the splicing process, the are removed and the remaining _ are connected to each other.

Introns & extrons

97
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Each aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase present in a cell recognizes _ of the 20 common amino acids. For credit, please answer with a number.

One

98
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What is the main function of the promoter in a bacterial transcription unit?

To form a recognition and binding site for RNA polymerase

99
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Like transcription, the process of in ribosomes occurs in three stages called initiation, elongation, and termination.

translation

100
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Eukaryotic genes may contain noncoding regions known as because they interrupt the sequence of a gene.

introns

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