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Which of the following is a statement of the first law of thermodynamics?
A. Energy cannot be created or destroyed
B. The entropy of the universe is decreasing
C. Kinetic energy is stored energy that results from the specific arrangement of matter
D. Energy cannot be transferred or transformed
Which of the following is a statement of the first law of thermodynamics?
A. Energy cannot be created or destroyed
B. The entropy of the universe is decreasing
C. Kinetic energy is stored energy that results from the specific arrangement of matter
D. Energy cannot be transferred or transformed
There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another?
A. a varying number of carboxyl groups attached to an amino group and a side chain (R group)
B. different side chains (R groups) attached to a carboxyl group and an amino group
C. different structural and optical isomers
D. different asymmetric carbons
There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another?
A. a varying number of carboxyl groups attached to an amino group and a side chain (R group)
B. different side chains (R groups) attached to a carboxyl group and an amino group
C. different structural and optical isomers
D. different asymmetric carbons
The complexity and variety of organic molecules is due to:
A. the chemical versatility of carbon atoms
B. the variety of rare elements in organic molecules
C. the fact that they can be synthesized only in living organisms
D. their interaction with water
The complexity and variety of organic molecules is due to:
A. the chemical versatility of carbon atoms
B. the variety of rare elements in organic molecules
C. the fact that they can be synthesized only in living organisms
D. their interaction with water
The element present in all organic molecules is:
A. hydrogen
B. oxygen
C. nitrogen
D. carbon
The element present in all organic molecules is:
A. hydrogen
B. oxygen
C. nitrogen
D. carbon
The two molecules shown in the figure to the right are best described as:
A. structural isomers
B. enantiomers
C. cis-trans isomers
D. optical isomers
The two molecules shown in the figure to the right are best described as:
A. structural isomers
B. enantiomers
C. cis-trans isomers
D. optical isomers
Which functional group is identified by the molecular formula -COOH?
A. hydroxyl
B. carbonyl
C. methyl
D. carboxyl
Which functional group is identified by the molecular formula -COOH?
A. hydroxyl
B. carbonyl
C. methyl
D. carboxyl
The functional group -NH3 is a/an:
A. carboxyl group
B. amino group
C. hydroxyl group
D. phosphate group
The functional group -NH3 is a/an:
A. carboxyl group
B. amino group
C. hydroxyl group
D. phosphate group
Which of these statements best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?
A. Dehydration synthesis assembles polymers, and hydrolysis breaks down polymers
B. Water is a product in hydrolysis but a reactant in dehydration synthesis
C. Hydrolysis breaks monomers, and dehydration synthesis breaks down polymers
D. Dehydration synthesis ionizes water molecules and adds hydroxyl groups to polymers hydrolysis ionizes water molecules and adds hydrogen ion to polymers.
Which of these statements best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?
A. Dehydration synthesis assembles polymers, and hydrolysis breaks down polymers
B. Water is a product in hydrolysis but a reactant in dehydration synthesis
C. Hydrolysis breaks monomers, and dehydration synthesis breaks down polymers
D. Dehydration synthesis ionizes water molecules and adds hydroxyl groups to polymers hydrolysis ionizes water molecules and adds hydrogen ion to polymers.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule shown above?
A. It is an unsaturated fatty acid, a type of fat produced by plants.
B. It is a saturated fatty acid, a molecule which can adhere to the inside of small blood vessels and cause atherosclerosis
C. Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.
D. It is polar, and therefore, hydrophilic.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule shown above?
A. It is an unsaturated fatty acid, a type of fat produced by plants.
B. It is a saturated fatty acid, a molecule which can adhere to the inside of small blood vessels and cause atherosclerosis
C. Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.
D. It is polar, and therefore, hydrophilic.
Proteins are macromolecules formed from:
A. nucleotides, which are connected to one another by glycosidic linkages
B. amino acids, which are connected to one another by ionic bonds
C. monosaccharides, which are connected to one another by peptide bonds
D. amino acids, which are connected together by peptide bonds
Proteins are macromolecules formed from:
A. nucleotides, which are connected to one another by glycosidic linkages
B. amino acids, which are connected to one another by ionic bonds
C. monosaccharides, which are connected to one another by peptide bonds
D. amino acids, which are connected together by peptide bonds
If cells are grown in a medium containg radioactive 35S-labled sulfate, which of these molecules will be labeled?
A. carbohydrates
B. nulceic acids
C. proteins
D. both phospholipids and nucleic acids
If cells are grown in a medium containg radioactive 35S-labled sulfate, which of these molecules will be labeled?
A. carbohydrates
B. nulceic acids
C. proteins
D. both phospholipids and nucleic acids
Which of the following descriptions best fits the structure of a nucleotide?
A. nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
B. a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar
C. nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar
D. a phosphate group and
Which of the following descriptions best fits the structure of a nucleotide?
A. nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
B. a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar
C. nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar
D. a phosphate group and an adenine or uracil
The tertiary structure of a protein is the
A. order in which amino acids are joined in a polypeptide chain
B. bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds.
C. unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide
D. organization of a polypeptide chain into an a helix or b pleated sheat.
The tertiary structure of a protein is the
A. order in which amino acids are joined in a polypeptide chain
B. bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds.
C. unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide
D. organization of a polypeptide chain into an a helix or b pleated sheat.
The following sequence is observed in a strange of DNA: 5'-AGCTCA-3'. Which of the following base sequences would complement this strand in a DNA double helix?
A. 5'-TGAGCT-3'
B. 5'-TCGAGT-3'
C. 5'-GTCGAC-3'
D. All of these pairs are correct
The following sequence is observed in a strange of DNA: 5'-AGCTCA-3'. Which of the following base sequences would complement this strand in a DNA double helix?
A. 5'-TGAGCT-3'
B. 5'-TCGAGT-3'
C. 5'-GTCGAC-3'
D. All of these pairs are correct
Breifly heating proteins in an aqueous soltion to 95*C will cause
A. bonds on the perimeter of the molecule to tighten
B. additional a helices and b pleated sheets to form within the molecules
C. the molecules to unravel, or denature
D. additional hydrogen bonds to spontaneously form throughout the molecule
Breifly heating proteins in an aqueous soltion to 95*C will cause
A. bonds on the perimeter of the molecule to tighten
B. additional a helices and b pleated sheets to form within the molecules
C. the molecules to unravel, or denature
D. additional hydrogen bonds to spontaneously form throughout the molecule
Which of the following could be used to distinguish a eukaryotic cell from a prokaryotic cell?
A. DNA
B. ribosomes
C. a plasma membrane
D. endoplasmic reticulum
Which of the following could be used to distinguish a eukaryotic cell from a prokaryotic cell?
A. DNA
B. ribosomes
C. a plasma membrane
D. endoplasmic reticulum
Which type of microscope would be most appropriate to use to observe the movement of chromosomes during cell division.
term-15
A. compound light microscope
B. transmission electron microscope (TEM)
C. scanning electron microscope (SEM)
D. confocal flourescence microscopy (CFM)
Which type of microscope would be most appropriate to use to observe the movement of chromosomes during cell division.
A. compound light microscope
B. transmission electron microscope (TEM)
C. scanning electron microscope (SEM)
D. confocal flourescence microscopy (CFM)
In cell fractionation, a centrifuge is used to separate cell components based on
A. the relative solubility of the component
B. the relative size of the component
C. the percentage of carbohydrates in the component
D. the presence or absense of lipids
In cell fractionation, a centrifuge is used to separate cell components based on
A. the relative solubility of the component
B. the relative size of the component
C. the percentage of carbohydrates in the component
D. the presence or absense of lipids
Which of the following is the primary reason cells are typically small?
A. The strength and integrity of the plasma membrane is limited and becomes stressed as cell size increases
B. The plasma membrane thickens with cell size and eventually limits entry of nutrients.
C. Eukaryotic cells refelct the evolutionary history of their smaller ancestors, prokaryotic cells, which are smaller
D. The surface area of the cell membrane must be sufficient area to support the cell's metabolic needs
Which of the following is the primary reason cells are typically small?
A. The strength and integrity of the plasma membrane is limited and becomes stressed as cell size increases
B. The plasma membrane thickens with cell size and eventually limits entry of nutrients.
C. Eukaryotic cells refelct the evolutionary history of their smaller ancestors, prokaryotic cells, which are smaller
D. The surface area of the cell membrane must be sufficient area to support the cell's metabolic needs
Which of these is a true statement concerning bacteria and archaea?
A. Archaea contain small membrane enclosed organelles; bacteria do not
B. Archaea contain a membrane-bound nucleus; bacteria do not
C. DNA is present in both archaea cells and bacteria cells
D. DNA is present in the mitochondria of both bacteria and archaea cells.
Which of these is a true statement concerning bacteria and archaea?
A. Archaea contain small membrane enclosed organelles; bacteria do not
B. Archaea contain a membrane-bound nucleus; bacteria do not
C. DNA is present in both archaea cells and bacteria cells
D. DNA is present in the mitochondria of both bacteria and archaea cells.
Which organelle is responsible for ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cells?
A. lysomes
B. mitochondrion
C. peroxisome
D. Golgi apparatus
Which organelle is responsible for ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cells?
A. lysomes
B. mitochondrion
C. peroxisome
D. Golgi apparatus
Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported from the cell?
A. Rough ER
B. Golgi vesicle
C. lysosomes
D. free ribosomes
Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported from the cell?
A. Rough ER
B. Golgi vesicle
C. lysosomes
D. free ribosomes
Which type of organelle or structure is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids and steroids?
A. ribosome
B. lysosome
C. smooth ER
D. contractile vacoule
Which type of organelle or structure is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids and steroids?
A. ribosome
B. lysosome
C. smooth ER
D. contractile vacoule
Thylakoids, DNA, and ribosomes would all be found in:
A. vacoules
B. chloroplasts
C. mitochondria
D. all types of eukaryotic cells
Thylakoids, DNA, and ribosomes would all be found in:
A. vacoules
B. chloroplasts
C. mitochondria
D. all types of eukaryotic cells
In a plant cell, DNA is found:
A. only in the nucleus
B. only in the nucleus and mitochondria
C. in the nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplats, and peroxisomes
D. in the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts
In a plant cell, DNA is found:
A. only in the nucleus
B. only in the nucleus and mitochondria
C. in the nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplats, and peroxisomes
D. in the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts
Which of the following subcellular structures contains hydrolytic enzymes?
A. lysosomes
B. vacuoles
C. Golgi apparatus
D. mitochondria
Which of the following subcellular structures contains hydrolytic enzymes?
A. lysosomes
B. vacuoles
C. Golgi apparatus
D. mitochondria
When a potassium ion (K+) moves from the soil into the vacuole of a cell on the surface of a root, it must pass through several cellular structures. Which of the following correctly describes the order in which these structures will be encountered by the ion?
A. plasma membrane -> primary cell wall -> cytoplasm -> vacuole
B. secondary cell wall -> plasma membrane -> primary cell wall -> cytoplasm -> vacuole
C. primary cell wall -> plasma membrane -> cytoplasm -> vacuole
D. primary cell wall -> plasma membrane -> lysosome -> vacuole
When a potassium ion (K+) moves from the soil into the vacuole of a cell on the surface of a root, it must pass through several cellular structures. Which of the following correctly describes the order in which these structures will be encountered by the ion?
A. plasma membrane -> primary cell wall -> cytoplasm -> vacuole
B. secondary cell wall -> plasma membrane -> primary cell wall -> cytoplasm -> vacuole
C. primary cell wall -> plasma membrane -> cytoplasm -> vacuole
D. primary cell wall -> plasma membrane -> lysosome -> vacuole
Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones?
A. anabolism
B. catabolism
C. dehydration
C. metabolism
Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones?
A. anabolism
B. catabolism
C. dehydration
C. metabolism
Which of the following is an example of potential energy as applied to biology?
A. the movement of muscles in a person mowing grass
B. heat produced by muscle contractions
C. the chemical energy contained in a molecule of glucose
D. the flight of an insect foraging for food
Which of the following is an example of potential energy as applied to biology?
A. the movement of muscles in a person mowing grass
B. heat produced by muscle contractions
C. the chemical energy contained in a molecule of glucose
D. the flight of an insect foraging for food
Which of the following is true for all exergonic reactions?
A. The products have more total energy than the reactants
B. The reaction results in a net release (overall release) of free energy
C. A net input (overall input) of energy from the surroundings is required for the reactions to proceed.
D. The reactions are always rapid
Which of the following is true for all exergonic reactions?
A. The products have more total energy than the reactants
B. The reaction results in a net release (overall release) of free energy
C. A net input (overall input) of energy from the surroundings is required for the reactions to proceed.
D. The reactions are always rapid
When chemical, transport, or mechanical work is done by an organism, what happens to the heat that is generated?
A. It is used to power yet more cellular work
B. it is used to store energy as more ATP
C. It is used to generate ADP from nucleotide precursors
D. It is lost to the environment
When chemical, transport, or mechanical work is done by an organism, what happens to the heat that is generated?
A. It is used to power yet more cellular work
B. it is used to store energy as more ATP
C. It is used to generate ADP from nucleotide precursors
D. It is lost to the environment
Reactants capable of interacting to form products in a chemical reaction must first overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the reaction's:
A. entropy
B. activation energy
C. endothermic level
D. free-energy
Reactants capable of interacting to form products in a chemical reaction must first overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the reaction's:
A. entropy
B. activation energy
C. endothermic level
D. free-energy
During a laboratory experiment, you discover that an enzyme-catalyzed reaction has a ∆G of -20 kcal/mol. If you double the amount of enzyme in the reaction, what will be the ∆G for the new reaction?
A. -40 kcal/mol
B. -20 kcal/mol
C. 0 kcal/mol
D. +20 kcal/mol
During a laboratory experiment, you discover that an enzyme-catalyzed reaction has a ∆G of -20 kcal/mol. If you double the amount of enzyme in the reaction, what will be the ∆G for the new reaction?
A. -40 kcal/mol
B. -20 kcal/mol
C. 0 kcal/mol
D. +20 kcal/mol
How does a noncompetitive inhibitor decrease the rate of an enzyme reaction?
A. by binding at the active site of the enzyme
B. by changing the shape of the enzyme's active site
C. by changing the free energy change of the reaction
D. by acting as the coenzyme for the reaction
How does a noncompetitive inhibitor decrease the rate of an enzyme reaction?
A. by binding at the active site of the enzyme
B. by changing the shape of the enzyme's active site
C. by changing the free energy change of the reaction
D. by acting as the coenzyme for the reaction
In each curve shown above, as temperature increases, so does the rate of reaction. After a certain point, however, it decreases even more rapidly. Which of the following correctly explains this observation?
A. Feedback inhibition decreases as more products are formed
B. The enzyme becomes denatured and therefore less able to act on the substrate
C. The activation energy for the reaction is higher at higher temperatures
D. Higher kinetic energy of molecules decreases the likelihood that enzymes and substrates will interact.
In each curve shown above, as temperature increases, so does the rate of reaction. After a certain point, however, it decreases even more rapidly. Which of the following correctly explains this observation?
A. Feedback inhibition decreases as more products are formed
B. The enzyme becomes denatured and therefore less able to act on the substrate
C. The activation energy for the reaction is higher at higher temperatures
D. Higher kinetic energy of molecules decreases the likelihood that enzymes and substrates will interact.
Zinc, a mineral needed by most organisms, is an essential part of the active site of the enzyme carboxypeptidase. Therefore zinc most likely functions as a(n):
A. noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme
B. allosteric activator of the enzyme
C. cofactor necessary for enzyme activity
D. coenzyme derived from a vitamin.
Zinc, a mineral needed by most organisms, is an essential part of the active site of the enzyme carboxypeptidase. Therefore zinc most likely functions as a(n):
A. noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme
B. allosteric activator of the enzyme
C. cofactor necessary for enzyme activity
D. coenzyme derived from a vitamin.
In which phase of mitosis does the pair of centrioles begin to separate, moving each individual toward the midline of the cell?
A. telophase
B. anaphase
C. metaphase
D. prophase
In which phase of mitosis does the pair of centrioles begin to separate, moving each individual toward the midline of the cell?
A. telophase
B. anaphase
C. metaphase
D. prophase
If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in both plant cells?
A. in a centromere
B. in a centrosome
C. in proteins within the cell membrane
D. in a kinetochore
Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in both plant cells?
A. in a centromere
B. in a centrosome
C. in proteins within the cell membrane
D. in a kinetochore
Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that:
A. reduces cyclin concentration
B. increases cyclin concentration
C. prevent elongation of microtubules
D. prevent shortening of microtubules
Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that:
A. reduces cyclin concentration
B. increases cyclin concentration
C. prevent elongation of microtubules
D. prevent shortening of microtubules
Using which of the following techniques would enable a lab group to distinguish between a cell in G2 and a cell from the same organism in G1?
A. radioactive-labeled nucleotides
B. electron microscopy
C. labeled kinetochore proteins
D. fluorescent microscopy
Using which of the following techniques would enable a lab group to distinguish between a cell in G2 and a cell from the same organism in G1?
A. radioactive-labeled nucleotides
B. electron microscopy
C. labeled kinetochore proteins
D. fluorescent microscopy
A group of cells is analyzed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms would be found at the end of S and the end of G2?
A. 8; 8
B. 8; 16
C. 16; 16
D. 12; 16
A group of cells is analyzed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms would be found at the end of S and the end of G2?
A. 8; 8
B. 8; 16
C. 16; 16
D. 12; 16
Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that shows fluctuations in concentration during thecell cylce, are called
A. ATPases
B. cyclins
C. phase markers
D. kinetochores
Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that shows fluctuations in concentration during thecell cylce, are called
A. ATPases
B. cyclins
C. phase markers
D. kinetochores
A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M phase checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation?
A. The cell would prematurely enter anaphase
B. The cell would never leave metaphase
C. The cell would never enter prophase
D. The cell would begin mitosis, but would fail to enter the next G1 phase.
A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M phase checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation?
A. The cell would prematurely enter anaphase
B. The cell would never leave metaphase
C. The cell would never enter prophase
D. The cell would begin mitosis, but would fail to enter the next G1 phase.
Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?
A. They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.
B. They are not subject to cell cycle controls
C. When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle, and they are not subject to cell controls
D. All of these are true concerning cancer cells
Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?
A. They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.
B. They are not subject to cell cycle controls
C. When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle, and they are not subject to cell controls
D. All of these are true concerning cancer cells
Why do neurons and some other specialized cells divide infrequently or not at all?
A. They no longer have active nuclei
B. They no longer carry receptors for signal molecules
C. The cell cycle has been halted and they have enetered into G0
D. They can no longer bind Cdk to cylin
Why do neurons and some other specialized cells divide infrequently or not at all?
A. They no longer have active nuclei
B. They no longer carry receptors for signal molecules
C. The cell cycle has been halted and they have enetered into G0
D. They can no longer bind Cdk to cylin
Which of the following is characterized by a cell releasing a signal molecule, followed by a number of cells in the immediate vicinity responding?
A. hormonal signaling
B. autocrine signaling
C. paracrine signaling
D. endocrine signaline
Which of the following is characterized by a cell releasing a signal molecule, followed by a number of cells in the immediate vicinity responding?
A. hormonal signaling
B. autocrine signaling
C. paracrine signaling
D. endocrine signaline
Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the following structures in animal cells?
A. peroxisomes
B. desmosomes
C. gap junctions
D. extracellular matrix
Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the following structures in animal cells?
A. peroxisomes
B. desmosomes
C. gap junctions
D. extracellular matrix
Which of the following types of signaling is represented in the figure on the right?
A. autocrine signaling
B. hormonal signaling
C. synaptic signaling
D. long-distance signaling
Which of the following types of signaling is represented in the figure on the right?
A. autocrine signaling
B. hormonal signaling
C. synaptic signaling
D. long-distance signaling
Neurotransmitters are molecules that bind with Ca+ ion channel proteins on the surface of neurons (nerve cells), causing the protein channels to open. In this capacity, nuerotransmitters are servering as which part of the signaling pathway?
A. receptors
B. transducers
C. ligands
D. second messangers
Neurotransmitters are molecules that bind with Ca+ ion channel proteins on the surface of neurons (nerve cells), causing the protein channels to open. In this capacity, nuerotransmitters are servering as which part of the signaling pathway?
A. receptors
B. transducers
C. ligands
D. second messangers
The flight or fight reflex involves the release of a single hormone (epinephrine, also known as adrenaline) into the bloodstream. How is the release of this hormone able to produce such a wide variety of responses in organs throughout the body?
A. The bloodstream specifically direct epinephrine to some organs and diverts it away from other organs
B. Epinephrine reaches all cells, but only cells with compatible receptors can respond.
C. Because epinephrine is involved in local signaling, it reaches only nearby tissues and organs.
D. Epinephrine binds with the surface of all types of cells, but some cells break the hormone down more quickly than others.
The flight or fight reflex involves the release of a single hormone (epinephrine, also known as adrenaline) into the bloodstream. How is the release of this hormone able to produce such a wide variety of responses in organs throughout the body?
A. The bloodstream specifically direct epinephrine to some organs and diverts it away from other organs
B. Epinephrine reaches all cells, but only cells with compatible receptors can respond.
C. Because epinephrine is involved in local signaling, it reaches only nearby tissues and organs.
D. Epinephrine binds with the surface of all types of cells, but some cells break the hormone down more quickly than others.
In general, the binding of a ligand with a receptor:
A. can only occur in proteins that are embedded in the phospholipid bilayer
B. causes an irreversible change in the receptor, after which the receptor is broken down
C. causes a conformational change that activates the receptor
D. causes each protein in the phosphorylation cascade to divide in half
In general, the binding of a ligand with a receptor:
A. can only occur in proteins that are embedded in the phospholipid bilayer
B. causes an irreversible change in the receptor, after which the receptor is broken down
C. causes a conformational change that activates the receptor
D. causes each protein in the phosphorylation cascade to divide in half
Which part of the following pathway would function as a second messanger?
epinephrine -> GPCR -> G protein -> adenylyl cyclase -> cAMP
A. cAMP
B. G protein
C. adenylyl cyclase
D. the G-protein-coupled receptor
Which part of the following pathway would function as a second messanger?
epinephrine -> GPCR -> G protein -> adenylyl cyclase -> cAMP
A. cAMP
B. G protein
C. adenylyl cyclase
D. the G-protein-coupled receptor
One of the major categories of receptors in the plasma membrane reacts by forming dimers, adding phosphate groups, and then activating multiple relay proteins. Which type does this?
A. G-protein coupled receptors
B. ligand-gated ion channels
C. steroid receptors
D. receptor tyrosine kinase
One of the major categories of receptors in the plasma membrane reacts by forming dimers, adding phosphate groups, and then activating multiple relay proteins. Which type does this?
A. G-protein coupled receptors
B. ligand-gated ion channels
C. steroid receptors
D. receptor tyrosine kinase
Which of the following is the best explanation for the fact that most transduction pathways have multiple steps?
A. Most of the steps were already in place because they are steps in other pathways
B. Multiple steps in a pathway require the least amount ATP
C. Multiple steps provide for greater possible amplification of a signal
D. Each individual step remove excess phosphate groups from cytoplasm
Which of the following is the best explanation for the fact that most transduction pathways have multiple steps?
A. Most of the steps were already in place because they are steps in other pathways
B. Multiple steps in a pathway require the least amount ATP
C. Multiple steps provide for greater possible amplification of a signal
D. Each individual step remove excess phosphate groups from cytoplasm
In which of the following ways do plant hormones differ from hormones in animals?
A. Plant hormones interact primarily with intracellular receptors
B. Plant hormones may travel in air or through vascular systems
C. Animal hormones are found in much greater concentration
D. Plant hormones are synthesized from two or more distinct molecules
In which of the following ways do plant hormones differ from hormones in animals?
A. Plant hormones interact primarily with intracellular receptors
B. Plant hormones may travel in air or through vascular systems
C. Animal hormones are found in much greater concentration
D. Plant hormones are synthesized from two or more distinct molecules
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