Immunology (Serology) Medical Laboratory Final Exam

From the following, identify a specific component of the adaptive immune system that is formed in response to antigenic stimulation:

A.lysozyme

B.complement

C.commensal organisms

D.immunoglobulin

D. Immunoglobulin

Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can bind to an antigen?

A.Fab

B.Fc

C.C1

D.CH

A. Fab

Which immunoglobulin appears in the highest titer in the secondary response?

A.IgG

B.IgM

C.IgA

A. IgG

Which immunoglobulin can cross the placenta first in the primary immune system?

A.IgG

B.IgM

C.IgA

D.IgE

A. IgG

Which immunoglobulin cannot cross the placenta first in the primary immune system?

A.IgG

B.IgM

C.IgA

D.IgE

B. IgM

Which immunoglobulin is transferred to the fetus by the mother.

A.IgG

B.IgM

C.IgA

D.IgE

B. IgG

What type of B cells are formed after antigen stimulation?

A. Receptor Activated B cells

B. Antigen Dependent B cells

C. Mature B Cells

D. Plasma cells and memory B cells

D. Plasma cells and memory B cells

What is the name of the process by which phagocytic cells are attracted toward a substance such as a bacterial peptide?

A. Diapedesis

B. Chemotaxis

C. Phagocytosis

D. Degranulation

B. Chemotaxis

what has happened in a titer.if tubes numbered 5 - 7 show stronqer reaction than tube in 1 - 4?

A. Post-zone Reaction

B. Prozone Reaction

C. Hypoparathyrhodism

D. Diabetic Ketoacidosis

B. Prozone reaction

The directions for a slide agglutination test instruct that after mixing the patient's serum and latex particles the slide must be rotated for 2 minutes. What would happen if the slide were rotated for 10 minutes?

A. Possible false-Negative result

B. False Negative

C. Possible false-positive result

D. False Positive

C. Possible false-positive result

Which serum antibody response usually characterizes the primary (early) stage of syphilis?

A. Detected 1-3 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre

B. Detected 4-6 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre

C. Detected 8 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre

D. Detected 12 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre

A. Detected 1-3 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre

Which specimen is the sample of choice to evaluate latent or tertiary syphilis?

A. Blood

B. CSF

C. Urine

D. Plasma

B. CSF

Which tests are considered confirmatory test for HIV?

A. Western Blot

B. Elisa

C. Rapid Antibody tests

D. None of the choices are correct

A. Western blot

Which tests are considered screening tests for HIV?

A. Western Blot

B. Elisa 4th generation

C. Rapid Antibody tests

D. Both B & C are correct

D

Tests to identify infection with HIV fall into which three general classification types of tests?

A. Antigens

B. Antibodies

C. Nucleic acid

D. All answers chooses are correct

D

Which T helper to T suppressor ratio is most likely in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?

A. 1:2

B. 1:4

C. 1:8

D. 1:16

A. 1:2

All of the following hepatitis viruses are spread through blood or blood products except?

A.Hepatitis A

B.Hepatitis B

C.Hepatitis C

D. Hepatitis D

A. Hepatitis A

Which of the following statements regardinginfection with hepatitis D virus is true?

A.Occurs in patients with hepatitis B

B.Occurs in patients with hepatitis A

C.Occurs in patients with hepatitis C

D. Occurs in patients with hepatitis E

A. Occurs in patients with hepatitis B

This is type of ANA staining is seen with antibodies to ribonucleoprotein?

(Fill in the Blank)

Speckled

The sum of the binding of all the paratopes and the epitopes.

A. Avidity

B. Affinity

A. Avidity

Antibody bound to an antigen indicates which pathway?

A. Classical

B.Alternative

C.Lectin

D. None of the above

A. Classical

What is the most likely explanation when a patient has clinical signs of viral hepatitis but tests negative for hepatitis A IgM, hepatitis B surface antigen, and hepatitis C Ab?

A. Tests were performed improperly

B. The patient does not have hepatitis

C. The patient may be in the "core window"

D. Clinical evaluation was performed improperly

C. The patient may be in the "core window"

Which hepatitis B marker is the best indicator of early acute infection?

A. Anti-Hbs

B. HbeAg

C. Anti-HBc

D. HbsAg

D. HbsAg

Which antibody persists in low-level carriers of hepatitis B virus?

A. IgG Anti-Hbc

B. HbeAg

C. IgM Anti-HBc

D. HbsAg

A. lgG anti-HBc

This is type of ANA staining is seen with antibodies to deoxyribonucleoprotein, histones or dsDna?

A. Homogenus

B. Heterogeneous

B. Homogeneous

Which Immunoglobulin is best at precipitation and agglutination?

A.IgG

B.IgM

C.IgA

D.IgE

B. IgM

Which of the following is considered a quantitative procedure.

A. Ouchterlony

B. Double diffusion

C.Radial diffusion

C. Radial Diffusion

What is MHC restriction?

A. The way that T cells recognize the limited sets of peptides that are chosen for presentation by the MHC

B. The way that B cells recognize the limited sets of peptides that are chosen for presentation by the MHC

C. The way that Helper cells recognize the limited sets of peptides that are chosen for presentation by the MHC

D. The way that Cytotoxic T cells recognize the limited sets of peptides that are chosen for presentation by the MHC

A. The way that T cells recognize the limited sets of peptides that are chosen for presentation by the MHC

The type of immunoglobulin involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is:

A.IgG

B.IgM

C.IgA

D.IgE

D. IgE

Interpret the following results for Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection: IgG and IgM antibodies to viral capsid antigen (VCA) positive.

A. Present Infection

B. Past infection

C. No Infection

D. Current Infection

D. Current Infection

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is cell mediated (DELAYED) and is mediated by sensitized T cells and activated macrophages? NO Ab involvement. Example: contact dermatitis.

A. Type I

B. Type II

C. Type III

D. Type IV

D. Type IV

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is IgE mediated and involves the degranulation of mast cells? Examples: Asthma, hay fever.

A. Type I

B. Type II

C. Type III

D. Type IV

A. Type I

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is IgM and IgG-mediated and causes cytotoxicity and complement activation? Examples: Hemolytic anemia, HDFN.

A. Type I

B. Type II

C. Type III

D. Type IV

B. Type II

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is caused by the deposition of immune complexes in blood vessel walls and tissues, causing complement activation through IgG or IgM? Example: Arthus reaction.

A. Type I

B. Type II

C. Type III

D. Type IV

C. Type III

When a T cell produces IL-2 and upregulates itself and a nearby B cell, the resultant response is?

A. paracrine and autocrine response that can cause B cell proliferation and antibody production

B. paracrine and autocrine response that can cause T and B cell proliferation and antibody production

C. paracrine and autocrine response that can cause T and B cell proliferation and antibody production

D. None of the answer choices are correct

C. paracrine and autocrine response that can cause T and B cell proliferation and antibody production

This immunoglobulin prevents an entrance of pathogens and blood?

A.IgG

B.IgM

C.IgA

D.IgE

C.IgA

Complement has

Has 35 different proteins that are synthesized by monocytes, the liver, macrophages, and epithelial cells.

Classical component pathway order

C1,C4,C2,C3,C5,C6,C7,C8,C9?

The difference in the 3 pathways is the way the C3 convertase is formed

In the classical pathway, the C3 convertase is C2aC4b' in the alternative pathway, it is C3wBb, and in the MBL pathway, the C3 convertase is C2aC4b

The AH50 differs from the CH50 because the AH50

measures the alternative pathway and the CH50 measures the classical pathway and uses rabbit red blood cells and the CH50 uses sheep red blood cells with antibody

What does Osha requires all the employees to offer which of these vaccines to hospital employees who may be at risk for?

A.Hepatitis A

B.Hepatitis B

C.Hepatitis C

D. Hepatitis D

B. Hepatitis B

Which part of the radial immunodiffusion (RID) test system contains the antisera?

A. Outer Walls

B. Antisera

C. Center Wall

D. Gel

D. Gel

Blood products are tested for which virus before being transfused to newborns

A. CMV

B. HDFN

C. Antibodies

D. EBV

A. CMV

Which disease may be expected to show IgM spike on an electrophoretic pattern?

A. Waldenstroms macroglobulinem

B. Thyroidism

C. ALL

D. CLL

A. Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia

Which T cell expresses the CD8 marker and acts specifically to kill tumors or virally infected cells?

A. Helper T

B. T Cytotoxic

C. CD4

D. CD8

B. T Cytotoxic

Which MHC class of molecule is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4-positive T cells?

A. Class I

B. Class II

C. Class III

D. Class IV

B. Class II

What is the titer in tube No. 8 if tube No. 1 is undiluted and dilutions are doubled?

A. 64

B. 128

C. 256

D. 512

B. 128

Rapid assays from influenza that utilize specimens obtained from nasopharyngeal swabs detect

Influenza antigen?

A. Influenza Antigen

B. IgA anti-influenza

C. IgM anti-influenza

D. Immune Complex

A. Influenza antigen

What is a general definition for autoimmunity?

A. Loss of Tolerance to self antigens

B. Increase of Tolerance

C. Increase of clonal deletion

D. Manifestation

A. Loss of tolerance to self-antigens

What screening test should be performed first in a young patient suspected of having an immune dysfunction disorder?

A. CBC

B. ANA

C. CBC W/ Diff

D. Elisa

C. CBC W/ Diff

Which test would measure the coating of red cells by antibody as occurs in hemolytic trasfusion reactions?

A. DAT

B. IAT

C. IFA

D. Elisa

A. DAT

Foreign substances were removed by specialized cells in a process known as phagocytosis.

A. Celluar Immunity

B. Humoral Immunity

C. Passive Immunity

D. Natural Immunity

A. Cellular Immunity

Substances in the blood provided protection from microorganisms.

A. Celluar Immunity

B. Humoral Immunity

C. Passive Immunity

D. Natural Immunity

B. Humoral Immunity

Born with the ability to resist infections by normal bodily functions.

A. Celluar Immunity

B. Humoral Immunity

C. Passive Immunity

D. Natural Immunity

D. Natural Immunity

Which of the following serial dilutions contains an incorrect factor?

A. 1:4, 1:8, 1:16

B. 1:1, 1:2, 1:4

C. 1:5, 1:15, 1:45

D. 1:2, 1:6, 1:12

D. 1:2, 1:6, 1:12

Which lymphoid organ is used to create monoclonal antibodies?

A. Spleen

B. Liver

C. Yolk Sak

D. Bone Marrow

A. Spleen

Give an example of laboratory testing that uses monoclonal antibodies.

A. Tumor Markers

B. CD Markers

C. Both A & B

D. None

C. Tumor makers & CD markers

Which fragment of macrophages have receptors for it?

A. FC

B. Fab

C. Hinge

D. Light Chain

A. FC

The sum of the attractive interaction between the paratope and epitope?

A. Avidity

B. Affinity

B. Affinity

Which Immunoglobulin is mainly found in secretions?

A.IgG

B.IgM

C.IgA

D.IgE

C. IgA

Which Immunoglobulin Is the most abundant in plasma?

A.IgG

B.IgM

C.IgA

D.IgE

A. IgG

Which Immunoglobulin has 10 paratopes?

A.IgG

B.IgM

C.IgA

D.IgE

B. IgM

Which Immunoglobulin has 4 subclasses?

A.IgG

B.IgM

C.IgA

D.IgE

A. IgG

A mature "naïve" B-cell has which immunoglobulin on its surface that helps designate its maturity?

A.IgG

B.IgD

C.IgA

D.IgE

B. IgD