Manor Preboards - Module 6

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88 Terms

1
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The following are indicators used for acid-base titrations, EXCEPT:

a.Methyl orange

b.Phenolphthalein

c.Ferric alum

d.Methyl red

e.All of the above

C

2
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A process wherein the sample is made to liberate iodine, which is then titrated with a standard solution of sodium thiosulfate:

a.Direct titration

b.Residual titration

c.Iodometry

d.Iodimetry

e.None of the above

C

3
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Total quality means:

a.Production is responsible for quality

b.Quality combines strict adherence to standard

c.Quality is everybody's business

d.All of the above

e.None of the above

C

4
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An organic compound that changes from one color to another at a certain pH is called:

a.Test solution

b.Standard solution

c.Buffer

d.Indicator

e.Titrant

D

5
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The official USP gravimetric methods are:

I. Assay involving direct ignition

II. Assay involving sublimation

III. Assay involving extraction

IV. Assay involving precipitation followed by ignition

a.I, III, and IV

b.II, III, and IV

c.I, II, and IV

d.I, II, and III

e.All of the above

A

6
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Most of the official drugs containing calcium and zinc are assayed by:

a.Gravimetry

b.Precipitimetry

c.Acidimetry

d.Complexometry

e.All of the above

D

7
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The process of removing an appropriate number of items from a population in order to make inferences to the entire population is called:

a.Inspection

b.Sampling

c.Statistic

d.Rejection

e.None of the above

B

8
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The Quality Control Department is important to:

a.Ensure uniform production of high-quality product

b.Safeguard public health

c.Ensure that the product complies with the FDA requirements

d.All of the above

e.None of the above

D

9
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Residual method titration with disodium edetate VS is applicable to what metal ion:

a.Aluminum

b.Calcium

c.Zinc

d.Magnesium

e.None of the above

A

10
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An analyst who determines the strength, potency, and percentage purity of a drug or pharmaceutical product is performing:

a.Special method

b.Pharmaceutical assaying

c.Identification test

d.Pharmacopoeial test

e.None of the above

B

11
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Adsorption indicators are used in:

a.Precipitimetry

b.Complexometry

c.Acidimetry

d.Alkalimetry

e.All of the above

A

12
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The most effective way to clean glass apparatus:

a.Soaking in detergent

b.Treatment with a solution of sodium chromate in sulfuric acid

c.Rinsing with nitric acid

d.Acetic acid

e.All of the above

B

13
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The substance being analyzed is the:

a.Titrant

b.Indicator

c.Analyte

d.Salt

e.None of the above

C

14
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The terms used when equivalent amounts of each reactant have reacted are the following, except:

a.End point

b.Equivalence point

c.Stoichiometric point

d.Theoretical point

e.All of the above

A

15
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Precipitation method using potassium chromate test solution as indicator and silver nitrate standard solution:

a.Volhard

b.Mohr

c.Fajans

d.All of the above

e.None of the above

B

16
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Ferric alum TS is used as indicator in volumetric precipitation method if the titrant is:

a.AgNO3

b.BaCl2

c.NH4Cl

d.NH4SCN

e.None of the above

D

17
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How many samples should be tested if a batch consists of 120 bottles of paracetamol suspension when the square root method is used?

a.11

b.10

c.13

d.12

e.14

D

18
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A tool for detecting variations in a process:

a.Pie chart

b.Bar chart

c.Quality control chart

d.T-chart

e.None of the above

C

19
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The functions of Quality Control include the following, EXCEPT:

a.Analytical control

b.Inspection control

c.Auditing

d.Planning

e.All of the above

C

20
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Materials to be sampled include the following, except:

a.Intermediate products

b.Raw materials

c.Records

d.Final products

e.All of the above

C

21
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The type of chromatography where the cellulose of the filter paper is used as the adsorbent:

a.Column chromatography

b.Gas chromatography

c.Paper chromatography

d.Thin layer chromatography

e.None of the above

C

22
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Antibiotics are assayed by:

a.Voltammetry

b.Polarimetry

c.Refractometry

d.Turbidimetry

e.All of the above

D

23
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Sources of quality variations are as follows, except:

a.Technician

b.Inadequate procedure

c.Equipment

d.General manager

e.All of the above

D

24
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Cause of quality variation due to men:

a.Fatigue due to overwork

b.Requires high salary

c.Resourceful at work

d.Health problems

e.None of the above

A

25
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A parenteral is declared pyrogenic according to the International Pharmacopoeia if the temperature rise in rabbits is:

a.Less than 1.4 °C in the 9 readings of the 3 rabbits

b.0.6 °C in the 1 of the 9 readings

c.> 1.4 °C in the 9 readings of the 3 rabbits

d.All of the above

e.None of the above

C

26
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A common sampling plan that uses master tables to interpret the results:

a.100% inspection

b.Military standard

c.Square root system

d.Simple random sampling

e.None of the above

B

27
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Amount of dissolved drug can be determined by:

a.Analytical balance

b.Brookfield viscometer

c.Dioctyl phthalate spray

d.Dissolution tester

e.All of the above

D

28
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Which is not considered as a primary packaging component?

a.Bottles

b.Packer boxes

c.Vials

d.Caps

e.All of the above

B

29
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The instrument used in measuring the optical activity of a sample:

a.Polarimeter

b.Refractometer

c.Spectrometer

d.Flame photometer

e.None of the above

A

30
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One of the fundamental laws in spectrophotometry is:

a.Pascal's Law

b.Beer's Law

c.Boyle's Law

d.Newton's Law

e.All of the above

B

31
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The index of refraction of a volatile oil can be determined by:

a.Spectrophotometer

b.Pycnometer

c.Polarimeter

d.Refractometer

e.None of the above

D

32
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The following are characteristics of a product with quality, EXCEPT:

a.Cheap price

b.Safe

c.Acceptable

d.Effective

e.All of the above

A

33
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Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is:

a.Absorbed

b.Reflected

c.Transmitted

d.Adsorbed by the particles of a suspension

e.None of the above

B

34
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The most preferred medium in dissolution testing is:

a.Alcohol

b.Acetone

c.Ether

d.Benzene

e.Water

E

35
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The following are the basic principles behind chromatographic separation, except:

a.Partition

b.Absorption

c.Adsorption

d.Ion-exchange

e.All of the above

B

36
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Disintegration test is done at this temperature:

a.

35 to 39 °C

b.

36.5 to 37.5 °C

c.

36 to 37 °C

d.

37 °C

e.

37 to 38 °C

A

37
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To assure stability of the product until expiry date, the label should indicate:

a.Proper dosage

b.Proper color

c.Proper drug administration

d.Proper storage

e.None of the above

D

38
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The following describe accelerated stability testing, EXCEPT:

a.Performed at higher temperatures to intensify degradation through time

b.Done to determine the shelf life of the product in a short period of time

c.Enough proof of shelf life and need not be further validated

d.The initial method used to determine a product's shelf life

e.All of the above

C

39
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An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. You are called to investigate.

According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the most likely source of the bacteria?

a.Colon

b.Nose

c.Throat

d.Vagina

e.All of the above

B

40
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In the laboratory, Neisseria meningitidis may be distinguished from Neisseria gonorrhea by:

a.Its characteristic morphology and gram stain

b.Its unique requirement for CO2 and ability to grow in Thayer-Martin medium

c.The presence of pili

d.Its ability to ferment particular carbohydrate

e.All of the above

D

41
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The reservoir host of Balantidium coli infection:

a.Dog

b.Cat

c.Pig

d.Cattle

e.None of the above

C

42
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A causative agent of peptic ulcer:

a.Helicobacter pylori

b.Escherichia coli

c.Shigella dysenteriae

d.Bordetella pertussis

e.None of the above

A

43
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Administration of a toxoid confers:

a.Naturally acquired active immunity

b.Naturally acquired passive immunity

c.Artificially acquired active immunity

d.Artificially acquired passive immunity

e.None of the above

C

44
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Rod-shaped bacteria curved to form commas are known as:

a.Vibrios

b.Bacilli

c.Cocci

d.Spiral

e.None of the above

A

45
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It causes ringworm infection with whitish patches on human skin:

a.Tinea capitis

b.Tinea corporis

c.Trichophyton rubrum

d.Malassezia furfur

e.None of the above

D

46
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The first chemotherapeutic agent scientifically discovered and evaluated:

a.Sulfonamide

b.Salvarsan

c.Penicillin

d.All of the above

e.None of the above

B

47
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Thioglycolate agar is an example of:

a.Enriched media

b.Selective media

c.Anaerobic media

d.Differential media

e.None of the above

C

48
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A chemical agent that kills the vegetative forms of pathogenic microorganisms but not necessarily the spores is known as:

a.Antiseptic

b.Disinfectant

c.Sanitizer

d.Germicide

e.All of the above

B

49
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A biological sterilization indicator used to test autoclave efficiency:

a.Bacillus stearothermophilus

b.Virus

c.Bacillus thuringiensis

d.Clostridium botulinum

e.None of the above

A

50
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An algae group responsible for red tide poisoning:

a.Dinoflagellates

b.Diatoms

c.Euglenoids

d.All of the above

e.None of the above

A

51
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The causative agent of Infectious Mononucleosis (IM) and is associated with Burkitt's lymphoma in East African children. No drug is effective to treat the disease.

a.Herpes Simplex virus Type 1

b.Varicella-Zoster virus

c.Herpes Simplex virus Type 2

d.Cytomegalovirus

e.Epstein-Barr virus

E

52
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Causes paralysis by blocking release of acetylcholine

a.Diphtheria toxin

b.Tetanus toxin

c.Toxic shock syndrome toxin

d.Botulinum toxin

e.Cholera toxin

D

53
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Five hours after eating fried rice at a restaurant, you and your friends developed nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the causative agent?

a.Clostridium perfringens

b.Bacillus cereus

c.Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli

d.Salmonella typhi

e.None of the above

B

54
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It is an important cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised patients.

a.Hepatitis C virus

b.Human papilloma virus

c.Dengue virus

d.St. Louis encephalitis virus

e.Cytomegalovirus

E

55
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The following are true about prokaryotes, except:

a.Their genetic materials are enclosed in a nuclear membrane.

b.They are relatively small.

c.Their genes are dedicated to essential functions only.

d.They lack autonomous organelles.

e.None of the above

A

56
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The following antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of proteins in microorganisms, except:

a.Aminoglycosides

b.Tetracyclines

c.Lincomycin

d.Cephalosporins

e.All of the above

D

57
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The growing stage of a protozoan parasite is:

a.Sporozoite

b.Trophozoite

c.Merozoite

d.Cysts

e.None of the above

B

58
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Man may acquire Toxoplasma from:

a.Mice

b.Dogs

c.Pigs

d.Cats

e.None of the above

D

59
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"Old world" hookworm:

a.Necator americanus

b.Ancylostoma caninum

c.Ancylostoma duodenale

d.Toxocara canis

e.None of the above

C

60
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The dog tapeworm that can be accidentally transmitted to humans:

a.Dipylidium caninum

b.Hymenolepis nana

c.Hymenolepis diminuta

d.Taenia solium

e.None of the above

A

61
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The fish tapeworm that can be acquired by eating insufficiently cooked, infected fish:

a.Taenia solium

b.Taenia saginata

c.Dipylidium caninum

d.Echinococcus granulosus

e.Diphyllobothrium latum

E

62
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Man is often infected by peeling water chestnuts with his teeth, which contain this organism:

a.Fasciola hepatica

b.Fasciolopsis buski

c.Paragonimus westermani

d.Chlonorchis sinensis

e.None of the above

B

63
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Dermatophytes that infect special keratinized areas of the body, skin and nails only are likely to belong to genus:

a.Epidermophyton

b.Trichophyton

c.Microsporum

d.Trichosporum

e.None of the above

A

64
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The "four o'clock habit" promoted by the Department of Health is designed to prevent the spread of

a.Dengue fever

b.Tuberculosis

c.Malnutrition

d.Malaria

e.None of the above

A

65
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An index that measures the number of individuals who have become ill because of a specific disease within a susceptible population during a specific period:

a.Morbidity rate

b.Prevalence rate

c.Mortality rate

d.AOTA

e.NOTA

A

66
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An acid-fast bacillus that has mycolic acid in its cell wall, which can be seen in a palisade arrangement.

a.Mycobacterium leprae

b.Mycobacterium tuberculosis

c.Borreliella burgdorferi

d.Treponema pallidum

e.Leptospira interrogans

A

67
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The sudden unexpected occurrence of a disease in a given population:

a.Outbreak

b.Zoonotic

c.Endemic

d.Sporadic

e.All of the above

A

68
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Lesions in the oral cavity caused by measles virus are known as:

a.Peyer's patches

b.Rose spots

c.Koplik's spots

d.Rashes

e.None of the above

C

69
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The causative agent of pneumonia acquired by inhalation from air-conditioners

a.Chlamydia pneumoniae

b.Salmonella typhi

c.Pneumocystis carinii

d.Legionella pneumophila

e.All of the above

D

70
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The following are communicable diseases, except:

a.Measles

b.Tetanus

c.Pneumonia

d.Hepatitis

e.All of the above

B

71
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The following are zoonotic diseases, except:

a.Leptospirosis

b.Anthrax

c.Mumps

d.Brucellosis

e.All of the above

C

72
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Lymphocytes that have a high affinity for HIV:

a.B-lymphocytes

b.T-helper lymphocytes

c.Phagocytes

d.T-cytotoxic lymphocytes

e.None of the above

B

73
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A priority program of DOH, which aims at promoting availability of quality services in health centers and hospitals:

a.Health Sector Reform Agenda

b.National Health Objectives

c.Health Passport Initiative

d.Sentrong Sigla

e.None of the above

D

74
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Its main objective is the attainment by all peoples of the highest possible level of health:

a.PhilHealth

b.WHO

c.DOH Hospitals

d.UNICEF

e.None of the above

B

75
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An employee liability law that provides financial support for workers unemployed because of work related injuries:

a.OSH Act

b.Civilian Rehabilitation

c.Coal Mine Health and Safety Act

d.Workers' Compensation Law

e.None of the above

D

76
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A type of industrial hazard, which includes ambient heat, burn, noise, and vibration:

a.Biological

b.Chemical

c.Physical

d.Ergonomic

e.NOTA

C

77
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A vitamin that serves as an intracellular antioxidant:

a.Vit. D

b.Vit. A

c.Vit. K

d.Vit. E

e.None of the above

D

78
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It is an aging process in the life cycle of a lake, pond, or slow-moving river and stream brought about by the accumulation of nutrients needed to sustain aquatic plants and animals accompanied by an increase in the number of organisms:

a.Acidification

b.Eutrophication

c.Alkalinification

d.Nitrification

e.None

B

79
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This is a period between conception through complete delivery of the product of conception:

a.Pregnancy

b.Fertilization

c.Implantation

d.Cleavage

e.None

A

80
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It describes the amounts of energy, protein, minerals, and vitamins needed by normal healthy individuals:

a.REA

b.RAD

c.RDA

d.RAE

e.None

C

81
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A type of malnutrition associated with inadequate mastication, digestion, absorption, transport, and excretion of nutrients:

a.Primary malnutrition

b.Undernutrition

c.Overnutrition

d.Secondary malnutrition

e.None

D

82
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Large, spore-forming rod, whose capsule is composed of poly-d-glutamate and may cause Wool Sorters' disease.

a.Meningococcus

b.Gonococcus

c.Clostridium tetani

d.Listeria monocytogenes

e.Bacillus anthracis

E

83
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Facultative gram-negative rods, non-lactose fermenting, and may cause enterocolitis (dysentery).

a.Escherichia coli

b.Salmonella typhi

c.Shigella dysenteriae

d.Vibrio cholerae

e.Campylobacter jejuni

C

84
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It refers to the invasion or colonization of the body by pathogenic bacteria

a.Disease

b.Infestation

c.Infection

d.Syndromes

e.None of the above

B

85
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This antibiotic has been found to be toxic, so its use has been limited only for the treatment of TB:

a.Penicillin

b.Cycloserine

c.Bacitracin

d.Vancomycin

e.All of the above

B

86
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The findings of ingested red blood cells in a trophozoite practically identifies:

a.Entamoeba coli

b.Endolimax nana

c.Iodamoeba butschlii

d.Dientamoeba fragilis

e.Entamoeba histolytica

E

87
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In clinical cases of malaria, the most favorable time to find parasites in the blood is:

a.During the late paroxysmal stage

b.At the beginning of a paroxysm

c.The period just following a paroxysm

d.The period just before a paroxysm

e.None of the above

D

88
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Caesarian section has been found to eliminate neonatal complications due to which of the following viruses?

a.Varicella-zoster

b.Herpes simplex virus-2

c.Cytomegalovirus

d.Poliovirus

e.All of the above

B