The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately
a) 008 degree and 026 degrees true
b) 080 degree and 260 degrees true
c) 080 degree and 260 magnetic
c) 080 degree and 260 magnetic
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2
According to the airport diagram
which statement is true?
a) Position E on Runway 30 is available for landing
b) Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12
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3
What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?
a) "A" may be used for taxi and takeoff
"E" may be used only as an overrun
b) "A" may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings
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4
"E" may be used only as an overrun
c) "A" may be used only for taxiing
"E" may be used for all operations except landings
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5
Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a
a) stabilized area
b) multiple heliport
c) closed runway
c) closed runway
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6
That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for
a) landing
b) taxiing and takeoff
c) taxiing and landing
b) taxiing and takeoff
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7
The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
a) 009 degree and 027 degrees true
b) 090 degree and 270 degrees true
c) 090 degree and 270 magnetic
c) 090 degree and 270 magnetic
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8
Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign?
a) D
b) G
c) H
a) D
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9
Which sign is a designation and direction of an exit taxiway from a runway?
a) J
b) F
c) K
c) K
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10
Which sign identifies where aircraft are prohibited from entering?
a) D
b) G
c) B
a) D
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11
This sign (E) is a visual clue that
a) confirms the aircraft's location to be on taxiway "B"
b) warns the pilot of approaching taxiway "B"
c) indicates "B" holding area is ahead
a) confirms the aircraft's location to be on taxiway "B"
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12
This sign (F) confirms your position on
a) runway 22
b) routing to runway 22
c) taxiway 22
a) runway 22
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13
When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines
the pilot
a) may continue taxiing
b) should not cross the lines without ATC clearance
c) should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines
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14
What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?
a) denotes the entrance to runway from a taxiway
b) denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway
c) denotes intersecting runways
c) denotes intersecting runways
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15
What does the outbound destination sign identify?
a) identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway
b) identifies runway on which an aircraft is located
c) identifies direction to take-off runways
c) identifies direction to takeoff runways
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16
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway
what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
a) indicates direction to take-off runway
b) indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway
c) indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection
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17
What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?
a) provides general taxiing direction to named runway
b) denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway
c) identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located
c) identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located
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18
The "yellow demarcation bar" marking indicates
a) runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway
b) a hold line from a taxiway to a runway
c) the beginning of available runway for landing o the approach side
a) runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway
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19
From the flight deck
this marking confirms the aircraft to be
a) on a taxiway
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20
Which marking indicates a vehicle lane?
a) A
b) C
c) E
b) C
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21
A lighted heliport may be identified by a
a) green
yellow
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22
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits
a) white and green alternating flashes
b) two quick
white flashes between green flashes
c) green
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23
An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates
a) there are obstructions on the airport
b) that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimum
c) the Air Traffic control tower is not in operation
b) that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimum
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24
How can a military airport be identified at night?
a) alternate white and green light flashes
b) dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes
c) white flashing lights with steady green at the same location
b) dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes
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25
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by
a) white directional lights
b) blue omnidirectional lights
c) alternate red and green lights
b) blue omnidirectional lights
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26
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity
the pilot should click the microphone seven times
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27
If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator
the pilot should land on
a) Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right
b) Runway 22 directly into the wind
c) Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right
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28
The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area
a) may be used only for taxiing
b) is usable for taxiing
takeoff
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29
Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing
a) Left-hand traffic and Runway 18
b) Right-hand traffic and Runway 18
c) Left-hand traffic and Runway 22
b) Right-hand traffic and Runway 18
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30
Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?
a) Right-hand traffic on Runway 9
b) Right-hand traffic on Runway 18
c) Left-hand traffic on Runway 36
c) Left-hand traffic on Runway 36
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31
The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is
a) left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18
b) left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for Runway 36
c) right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for Runway 27
a) left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18
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32
The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the
a) south of the airport
b) north of the airport
c) southeast of the airport
c) southeast of the airport
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33
The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a
a) right-quartering headwind
b) left-quartering headwind
c) right-quartering tailwind
a) right-quartering headwind
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34
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?
a) Depart in any direction consistent with safety after crossing the airport boundary
b) Make all turns to the left
c) Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport
c) Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport
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35
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is
a) 45 degrees to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude
b) to enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude
c) to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg
b) to enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude
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36
You are on approach to land on Runway 19 of a non-towered airport. You observe ripples on the southeast side of a small lake 3/4 mi. east of the airport. What is the most appropriate course of action?
a) proceed with your approach to runway 19
b) maneuver for an approach to runway 01
c) check the windsock to determine the appropriate runway
c) check the windsock to determine the appropriate runway
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37
When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI)
the pilot shall
a) maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold
b) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope
c) remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bar
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38
A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a
a) pulsating white light
b) steady white light
c) pulsating red light
c) pulsating red light
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39
While operating in class D airspace
each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall
a) maintain a 3-degree glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI
b) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing
c) stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing
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40
Which approach and landing objective assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
a) continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR
b) safe obstruction clearance in the approach area
c) course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown
b) safe obstruction clearance in the approach area
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41
Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall
a) maintain a 3-degree glide to the runway
b) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope
c) stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing
b) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope
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42
Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is
a) below the glide slope
b) on the glide slope
c) above the glide slope
b) on the glide slope
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43
While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI
the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is
a) above the glide path
b) below the glide path
c) on the glide path
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44
VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is
a) off course to the left
b) above the glide slope
c) below the glide slope
b) above the glide slope
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45
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
a) runway identification and course guidance
b) safe obstruction clearance in the approach area
c) lateral course guidance to the runway
b) safe obstruction clearance in the approach area
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46
A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is
a) four white lights
b) three white lights and one red light
c) two white lights and two red lights
b) three white lights and one red light
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47
Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is
a) operating at high airspeeds
b) heavily loaded
c) developing lift
c) developing lift
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48
Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to
a) sink below the aircraft generating turbulence
b) rise into the traffic pattern
c) rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway
a) sink below the aircraft generating turbulence
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49
With winds reported as from 300° at 4 knots
you are given instructions to taxi to runway 30 for departure and to expect to take off after an airliner
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50
When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating
one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to
a) rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path
b) rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport
c) sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating turbulence
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51
When landing behind a large aircraft
the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
a) above the large aircrafts final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point
b) below the aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point
c) above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point
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52
The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a
a) light
quartering headwind
b) light
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53
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
a) inward
upward
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54
When landing behind a large aircraft
which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
a) Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown
b) stay below and to one side of its final approach flight path
c) stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2
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55
The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
a) light
dirty
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56
When departing behind a heavy aircraft
the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft
a) below and downwind from the heavy aircraft
b) above and upwind from the heavy aircraft
c) below and upwind from the heavy aircraft
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57
Your flight takes you in the path of a large aircraft. In order to avoid the vortices you should fly
a) at the same altitude as the large aircraft
b) below the altitude of the large aircraft
c) above the flight path of the large aircraft
c) above the flight path of the large aircraft
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58
During a night flight
you observe steady red and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a) The other aircraft is crossing to the left
b) The other aircraft is crossing to the right
c) The other aircraft is approaching head on
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59
During a night flight
you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a) The other aircraft is flying away from you
b) The other aircraft is crossing to the left
c) The other aircraft is crossing to the right
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60
During a night flight
you observe steady red and green lights ahead at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a) The other aircraft is crossing to the left
b) The other aircraft is flying away from you
c) The other aircraft is approaching head on
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61
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
a) The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate
b) The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space
c) There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft
c) There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft
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62
Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should
a) not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second
b) be 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds
c) use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing
a) not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second
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63
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use
a) regularly space concentration on the 3-
9-
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64
Prior to starting each maneuver
pilots should
a) check altitude
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65
What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?
a) execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace
b) advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes
c) fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude
a) execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace
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66
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use
a) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-
9-
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67
Most midair collision accidents occur during
a) hazy days
b) clear days
c) cloudy nights
b) clear days
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68
Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with
a) the controlling agency
b) all pilots
c) Air Traffic Control
b) all pilots
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69
The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10
000 feet
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70
It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least
a) 50 feet or less to another aircraft
b) 500 feet or less to another aircraft
c) 1
000 feet or less to another aircraft
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71
ADS-B equipment is not required for aircraft in flight above 10
000 ft. MSL
a) because Class A airspace begins at 18
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72
Can aircraft without ADS-B Out equipment overfly Class C airspace?
a) Yes
as long as contact with the controlling facility is maintained for the duration of the overflight
b) Yes
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ADS-B equipment offers many benefits to pilots
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however
the range of coverage for air traffic controllers is
a) limited
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75
Any airspace that requires the use of a transponder also requires aircraft to be
a) equipped with specific ADS-B Out equipment
b) on a VFR flight plan with ADS-B Out in the transmit mode at all times
c) on an IFR flight plan with ADS-B Out equipment
a) equipped with specific ADS-B Out equipment
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76
Onboard ADS-B Out equipment is useful to pilots and ATC controllers
a) all the time
even when aircraft are positioned on the airport surface
b) anytime the aircraft is above 2
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77
When should ADS-B equipment be operated on the ground while taxiing?
a) only when ATC specifically requests your ADS-B equipment be activated
b) anytime when the airport is operating under IFR conditions
c) all the time when on the airport surface
c) all the time when on the airport surface
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78
After landing at a tower-controlled airport
when should the pilot contact ground control?
a) when advised by the tower to do so
b) prior to turning off the runway
c) after reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking areas
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79
If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9
the pilot may proceed
a) via taxiways and across runways to
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80
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning
a) pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction
b) nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion
c) noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas
c) noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas
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81
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that
a) weather conditions area at or above VFR minimums
b) the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted
c) the ceiling is at least 5
000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more
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82
When a control tower located on an airport within class D airspace ceases operation for the day
what happens to the airspace designation?
a) The airspace designation normally will not change
b) The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available
c) the airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operations
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83
A non-tower satellite airport
within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport
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84
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on
a) the number of airports that lie within the class D airspace
b) 5 statue miles from the geographical center of the primary airport
c) the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established
c) the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established
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85
Unless otherwise authorized
two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs at all towered airports
a) regardless of weather conditions
b) only when weather conditions are less than VFR
c) within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR
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86
Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only
a) when the weather minimums are below basic VFR
b) when the associated control tower is in operation
c) when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation
b) when the associated control tower is in operation
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87
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
a) When visibility is less than 1 mile
b) When parallel runways are in use
c) When departing from a runway intersection
c) When departing from a runway intersection
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88
The radius of the procedural outer area of Class C airspace is normally
a) 10 NM
b) 20 NM
c) 30 NM
b) 20 NM
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89
Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
a) The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure
b) The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace
c) The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff
c) The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff
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90
All operations within Class C airspace must be in
a) accordance with instrument flight rules
b) compliance with ATC clearances and instructions
c) an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability
c) an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability
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91
Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?
a) Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency
b) Contact the tower and request permission to enter
c) Contact the FSS for traffic advisories
a) Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency
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92
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
a) 1
200 feet AGL
b) 3
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93
Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
a) Class C
b) Class E
c) Class G
a) Class C
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94
With certain exceptions
all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10
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95
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
a) Recreational Pilot Certificate
b) Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements
c) Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating
b) Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements
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96
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
a) Private Pilot certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements
b) Commercial Pilot Certificate
c) Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating
a) Private Pilot certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements
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97
The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are
a) 500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility
b) 1
000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility
c) clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility
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98
You would like to enter Class B airspace and contact the approach controller. The controller responds to your initial radio call with "N125HF standby." May you enter the Class B airspace?
a) You must remain outside the Class B airspace until controller gives you a specific clearance
b) You may continue into the Class B airspace and wait for further instructions
c) You may continue into the Class B airspace without a specific clearance
i the aircraft is ADS-B equipped.
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99
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
a) Class A
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100
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10
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