319 Unit 6 - Hypertension Medications

Cholestyramine (questran) is a bile-acid sequestrate that:

a. inhibits cholesterol absorption in cells of small intestine

b. reduces LDL cholesterol levels by binding with bile in the intestines

c. inhibits an enzyme involved in cholesterol biosynthesis

d. more effective in the clearance of VLDLs and triglycerides

b. reduces LDL cholesterol levels by binding with bile in the intestines

what side effects is cholestyramine known to cause?

a. flushing

b. severe headaches

c. constipation and cramping

d. vision changes

c. constipation and cramping

which of the following is true of fibrates (fenofibrate gemfibrozil)

a. inhibits cholesterol absorption in cells of small intestine

b. reduces LDL cholesterol levels by binding with bile in the intestines

c. inhibits an enzyme involved in cholesterol biosynthesis

d. more effective in the clearance of VLDLs and triglycerides

d. more effective in clearance of VLDLs and triglycerides

which medication class should not be taken with fibrates due to their competition for the same protein?

a. antihypertensives

b. opioid analgesics

c. statins

d. anticoagulants

d. anticoagulants

true or false: nicotinic acid (Niacin) can be purchased OTC but requires large doses and initially has low tolerance with many side effects

true

Exetimibe (Zetia) is an antihyperlipidemic that:

a. inhibits cholesterol absorption in cells of small intestine

b. reduces LDL cholesterol levels by binding with bile in the intestines

c. inhibits an enzyme involved in cholesterol biosynthesis

d. more effective in the clearance of VLDLs and triglycerides

a. inhibits cholesterol absorption in the small intestine

which drug class must Exetimibe (Zetia) be taken with to optimize effects that also causes the drug to have a low tolerance?

a. ARBs

b. statins

c. anticoagulants

d. fibrates

b. statins

Statins such as atorvastatin calcium (lipitor) is an antihyperlipidemic that:

a. inhibits cholesterol absorption in cells of small intestine

b. reduces LDL cholesterol levels by binding with bile in the intestines

c. inhibits an enzyme involved in cholesterol biosynthesis

d. more effective in the clearance of VLDLs and triglycerides

c. inhibits an enzyme involved in cholesterol biosynthesis

which of the following is not an important intervention for patients on statins?

a. report sudden or unexplained muscle tenderness

b. educate on taking drug with food

c. monitor liver enzymes

d. teach importance of regimen compliance

b. educate on taking drug with food

when is the best time to take a statin in order to mimic the effects of peak liver activity?

a. morning

b. immediately following meals

c. bedtime

d. middle of the day

c. bedtime

which drug class dilates arterioles and veins by blocking angiotensin 2 from binding to receptors?

a. ARBS (-sartan)

b. ACE inhibitors (-pril)

c. calcium channel blockers (-pine)

d. beta adrenergic blockers (-lol)

a. ARBS (-sartan)

which drug class blocks the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 in order to keep vessels dilated and decrease CO/PVR?

a. ARBS (-sartan)

b. ACE inhibitors (-pril)

c. calcium channel blockers (-pine)

d. beta adrenergic blockers (-lol)

b. ACE inhibitors (-pril)

what side effect is characteristic to ACE inhibitors and may warrant switching to an ARB instead?

persistent dry cough

which is not a known adverse effect of ACE inhibitors?

a. severe liver impairment

b. hyperkalemia

c. angioedema

d. laryngeal edema

a. severe liver impairment

(thiazide/loop) diuretics are typically the first line of defense in hypertensive patients

thiazide

(thiazide/loop) diuretics are used if hypertension is related to a RAAS system dysfunction

loop

which condition can contraindicate the use of diuretics as a treatment for hypertension?

a. diabetes

b. heart failure

c. renal failure

d. all of the above

c. renal failure

which drug class works by blocking calcium in the myocardium to decrease excitability and PVR in the heart?

a. ARBS (-sartan)

b. ACE inhibitors (-pril)

c. calcium channel blockers (-pine)

d. beta adrenergic blockers (-lol)

c. calcium channel blockers (-pine)

although most calcium channel blockers end in "-pine", which two exceptions are worth noting?

1. verapamil (calan)

2. diltiazem (cardizem)

which drug class works by blocking adrenergic receptors involved in the SNS to cause vasodilation?

a. ARBS (-sartan)

b. ACE inhibitors (-pril)

c. calcium channel blockers (-pine)

d. beta adrenergic blockers (-lol)

d. beta-adrenergic blockers (-lol)

true or false: beta-blockers can be stopped immediately once hypertension is controlled

false - abruptly stopping can cause rebound hypertension

which drug is a non-selective beta-blocker that should be used with caution in patients with respiratory conditions?

a. labetalol

b. propranolol (inderal)

c. metoprolol (lopressor)

d. methyldopa

b. propranolol

which drug is a selective beta blocker?

a. labetalol

b. propranolol (inderal)

c. metoprolol (lopressor)

d. methyldopa

c. metoprolol (lopressor)

which drug is a combination alpha and beta blocker but only has mild effects on heart rate?

a. labetalol

b. propranolol (inderal)

c. metoprolol (lopressor)

d. methyldopa

a. labetalol

which drug is a centrally acting alpha 2 agonist that relaxes the SNS response to promote vasodilation?

a. labetalol

b. propranolol (inderal)

c. metoprolol (lopressor)

d. methyldopa

d. methyldopa

which drug is an example of the alpha adrenergic blockers?

a. doxazosin (cardura)

b. spironolactone (aldactone)

c. hydralazine

d. atenolol (tenormin)

a. doxazosin (cardura)

which drug is an aldosterone antagonist, otherwise known as a potassium sparing diuretic?

a. doxazosin (cardura)

b. spironolactone (aldactone)

c. hydralazine

d. atenolol (tenormin)

b. spironolactone (aldactone)

true or false: direct acting vasodilators such as hydralazine are used in acute care for hypertension due to their rapid acting effects

true