TAMU Vet Science CDE Bank

Texas A&M AgriLife Extension Chapters 2, 4, 6, and 8 Taken from Preparatory Training for the Veterinary Assistant By Floron C. Faries, Jr. DVM, MS

1. Which of the following is not a duty of a veterinary assistant? a. Scheduling appointments b. Filing patient records c. Performing surgery d. Maintaining inventory

Performing surgery

2. If a client becomes rude or demanding, what should the veterinary assistant do? a. Argue back to show authority b. Ignore the client completely c. Remain calm and reason with the client d. Immediately call the police

Remain calm and reason with the client

3. The veterinary assistant should aim to answer the phone by: a. The first ring b. The third ring c. The fifth ring d. After finishing current tasks

The third ring

4. Why is the veterinary assistant’s appearance important? a. It shows that they know how to treat animals b. It gives clients a good first impression of the clinic c. It helps them move quickly around the clinic d. It makes it easier to handle phone calls

It gives clients a good first impression of the clinic

5. What percent of communication is estimated to be non-verbal? a. 20% b. 50% c. 80% d. 95%

80%

6. What is often the cause of workplace conflict in veterinary practices? a. Lack of technical skill b. Excessive delegation of tasks c. Too much reliance on technology d. Lack of communication between individuals

Lack of communication between individuals

7. Which of the following is not a disease agent found in a dog? a. Rabies b. Mange mites c. Feline leukemia virus d. Cryptosporidium

Feline leukemia virus

8. Diseases that can be transmitted between animals and humans are called: a. Zoonoses b. Pathogens c. Parasites d. Contagions

Zoonoses

9. What is the recommended minimum time for rubbing hands with soap during hand washing? a. 5–10 seconds b. 10–15 seconds c. 15–20 seconds d. 25–30 seconds

15–20 seconds

10. Dry pet food has an average moisture content of: a. 6–10% b. 23–38% c. 50–60% d. 68–78%

6–10%

11. Semi-moist pet food contains approximately: a. 6–10% water b. 23–38% water c. 50–60% water d. 68–78% water

23–38% water

12. Which body system includes the skin and modified skin structures? a. Muscular b. Integumentary c. Digestive d. Skeletal

Integumentary

13. Which layer of the skin provides insulation and acts as an energy reservoir? a. Epidermis b. Dermis c. Hypodermis d. Endoderm

Hypodermis

14. Which type of muscle is striated, branched, mononucleated, and involuntary? a. Smooth muscle b. Skeletal muscle c. Cardiac muscle d. Tendinous muscle

Cardiac muscle

15. Which body posture generally indicates a confident, healthy animal? a. Crouched, ears back, tail tucked b. High head carriage, alert ears, bright eyes c. Hiding with a dull expression d. Head hanging low

High head carriage, alert ears, bright eyes

16. What should be done with a fearful or aggressive small dog to facilitate safe handling? a. Place it in stocks b. Avoid any restraint at all c. Allow it to run loose in the exam room d. Wrap it snugly in a towel with a muzzle

Wrap it snugly in a towel with a muzzle

17. How long should a glass thermometer remain in place? a. 30 seconds b. 1 minute c. 2 minutes d. 5 minutes

2 minutes

18. A normal pulse rate for a dog is: a. 70–120 b. 70–80 c. 35–60 d. 30–40

70–120

19. What are genes carried on? a. Ribosomes b. Chromosomes c. Nucleus d. mRNA

Chromosomes

20. What base replaces thymine in mRNA transcription? a. Adenine b. Cytosine c. Uracil d. Guanine

Uracil

21. When two different alleles are present, which one is expressed? a. The recessive allele b. Both equally in all cases c. The dominant allele d. Neither allele

The dominant allele

22. Which criterion is more reliable for estimating age in animals? a. Tooth wear b. Tooth eruption dates c. Occlusal surface shape d. Angle of incisors

Tooth eruption dates

23. Which factor increased cat popularity in cities? a. Cats require less space and attention b. Cats live longer than dogs c. Cats are stronger hunters d. Cats shed less

Cats require less space and attention

24. Which horse breed was developed in the United States and is known for working cattle and racing? a. Thoroughbred b. Arabian c. Quarter Horse d. Standardbred

Quarter Horse

25. Which breed of cattle is solid black or red and naturally polled? a. Hereford b. Angus c. Charolais d. Limousin

Angus

26. Which animals lack upper incisors, requiring examination of the lower incisors to determine age? a. Dogs b. Cats c. Cattle d. Horses

Cattle

27. What is the main purpose of restraint in animals? a. To punish the animal b. To train the animal c. To show dominance d. To prevent injury to the animal and handler

To prevent injury to the animal and handler

28. Which form of restraint involves sedation or total immobilization? a. Psychological restraint b. Chemical restraint c. Physical restraint d. Manual restraint

Chemical restraint

29. Which knot is often tied by mistake when attempting a square knot? a. Reefer’s knot b. Granny knot c. Bowline knot d. Half hitch

Granny knot

30. Which knot is the simplest and forms the basis of many others? a. Bowline knot b. Square knot c. Halter tie d. Overhand knot

Overhand knot

31. Approximately what percentage of dog bites in the United States come from unvaccinated dogs? a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40%

40%

32. When first meeting a dog, how should you extend your hand? a. Palm down, without staring b. Palm up, with direct eye contact c. Palm sideways, while leaning forward d. Palm up, with baby talk

Palm down, without staring

33. What is unique about cattle’s vision compared to humans’? a. They see in full color like humans b. They have 360° panoramic vision c. They have 300° panoramic vision but mostly blurry d. They can only see clearly with one eye at a time

They have 300° panoramic vision but mostly blurry

34. Why is handling cattle more complex than handling horses or swine? a. They are less intelligent b. They have better eyesight c. They are larger, shyer, and less predictable d. They are easier to overpower with strength

They are larger, shyer, and less predictable

35. What method should handlers avoid when handling sheep? a. Holding by the wool b. Holding by the jaw c. Holding by the rear flank d. Catching by the flank

Holding by the wool

36. How should guinea pigs be restrained? a. By the tail and one ear b. By grasping the nape or thorax and supporting the rump c. By setting them on their rump d. By wrapping them in a towel

By grasping the nape or thorax and supporting the rump

37. What makes hamsters more likely to bite? a. Being too warm b. Being handled with bare hands c. Not being fully awakened from sleep d. Being placed on their back

Not being fully awakened from sleep

38. What is the safest way to carry a rabbit? a. By the ears and hind legs b. On the forearm, with head tucked between elbow and side c. By grabbing the scruff only d. Inverted on its back

On the forearm, with head tucked between elbow and side

39. Which of the following is a method of fecal examination? a. Direct smear b. Flotation c. Gross examination d. All of the above

All of the above

40. What are the three main types of blood cells? a. Plasma, antibodies, enzymes b. Erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes c. Hemoglobin, neutrophils, plasma d. Antigens, lymphocytes, monocytes

Erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes

41. What color change in urine may indicate disease? a. From amber to red/brown/black b. From clear to yellow c. From sweet-smelling to sour d. From foamy to flat

From amber to red/brown/black

42. Which of the following is not one of the four general methods of bacteriologic diagnosis? a. Direct microscopic examination b. Culture c. Radiologic imaging d. Animal inoculation

Radiologic imaging

43. What are the three morphologic classifications of bacteria mentioned in the passage? a. Cocci, bacilli, spirilla b. Cocci, fungi, viruses c. Bacilli, protozoa, spirilla d. Spirilla, helminths, cocci

Cocci, bacilli, spirilla

44. Gram-positive bacteria appear what color under the microscope after staining? a. Red b. Blue c. Green d. Yellow

Blue

45. What type of contrast (short or long scale) is produced when using high kVp and low mAs? a. Short scale (black and white) b. Long scale (many shades of gray) c. No contrast at all d. None of the above

Long scale (many shades of gray)

46. Which device is used to eliminate scatter radiation and improve radiographic detail? a. X-ray grid b. Caliper c. Collimator d. Receptor plate

X-ray grid

47. What protective clothing is recommended for a necropsy? a. Jeans, t-shirt, and rubber boots b. Disposable gloves and lab coat only c. One-piece coveralls, rubber gloves, and rubber overshoes d. Scrubs and cloth shoes

One-piece coveralls, rubber gloves, and rubber overshoes

48. What condition refers to inflammation of the bladder? a. Cystitis b. Hepatitis c. Nephritis d. Dermatitis

Cystitis

49. What does ECG stand for in veterinary diagnostics? a. Endoscopic Clinical Guide b. Electrocardiogram c. Erythrocyte Count Graph d. Enzyme Chemistry Guide

Electrocardiogram

50. Which of the following conditions can ultrasound detect? a. Pregnancy b. Tissue swellings c. Cysts and abscesses d. All of the above

All of the above

51. When making an appointment, what information should always be collected? a. Client’s name, animal’s name, reason for visit, and contact information b. Only the client’s phone number c. Only the animal’s symptoms d. Veterinarian’s preferred time

Client’s name, animal’s name, reason for visit, and contact information

52. If multiple clients have the same last name, records should be filed by: a. Date of birth b. First name alphabetically c. Appointment time d. Pet’s species

First name alphabetically

53. What should the veterinary assistant do if unsure about the answer to a client’s question? a. Guess the best answer b. Refer the client to another clinic c. Ask the veterinarian for help d. Tell the client to look online

Ask the veterinarian for help

54. When placing a client on hold, the veterinary assistant should: a. Never place clients on hold b. Leave them on hold as long as necessary c. Check back every 1–2 minutes d. Immediately transfer to voicemail

Check back every 1–2 minutes

55. Which of the following is ranked highest among the soft skills required in the workplace? a. Time management skills b. Leadership skills c. Technical knowledge d. Communication skills

Communication skills

56. Which of the following is a soft skill? a. Performing lab tests b. Delegating responsibilities and communicating c. Administering injections d. Filing patient records

Delegating responsibilities and communicating

57. What is the main objective of infectious and parasitic disease control in veterinary clinics? a. To increase clinic profits b. To prevent the spread of infections and infestations c. To eliminate all bacteria and viruses d. To treat animals more quickly

To prevent the spread of infections and infestations

58. What is the first step of proper hand washing? a. Add soap b. Rinse well c. Wet hands with water d. Dry with a towel

Wet hands with water

59. How long should hands be rinsed when using hand sanitizer? a. They should not be rinsed b. 10–15 seconds c. 5–10 seconds d. 15–20 seconds

They should not be rinsed

60. What is the main objective of proper food storage in a veterinary hospital? a. To make food preparation easier b. To prevent food from drying out c. To preserve nutritional quality and reduce monetary loss d. To improve the taste of food for animals

To preserve nutritional quality and reduce monetary loss

61. Wet/canned pet food is more perishable because: a. It is stored in bulk bags b. It has higher water content c. It has no nutritional value d. It requires refrigeration before opening

It has higher water content

62. Which of the following lists the correct three layers of the skin from outermost to innermost? a. Dermis, epidermis, hypodermis b. Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis c. Hypodermis, dermis, epidermis d. Epidermis, hypodermis, dermis

Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis

63. What term describes connecting bone to bone? a. Ligament b. Tendon c. Joint d. Cartilage

Ligament

64. Which statement best describes skeletal muscle? a. Non-striated, involuntary, and found in hollow organs b. Striated, multinucleated, and responsible for voluntary movement c. Striated, mononucleated, and located in the heart wall d. Smooth, involuntary, and used for digestion

Striated, multinucleated, and responsible for voluntary movement

65. To relay messages to and from the CNS, the peripheral nervous system includes which of the following? a. Afferent nerve fibers b. Efferent nerve fibers c. Effector organs d. All of the above

All of the above

66. What is one of the first behavior signals that should be evaluated when handling animals? a. Vocalizations b. Eating habits c. Body language and posture d. Tail color

Body language and posture

67. Which chamber of the ruminant stomach removes excess water from the stomach contents? a. Rumen b. Reticulum c. Abomasum d. Omasum

Omasum

68. What is the best way to handle a fearful or nervous cat? a. Grab it quickly to prevent escape b. Handle it as little as possible and use a towel wrap if needed c. Keep it on the exam table at all times d. Spray it with water to calm it down

Handle it as little as possible and use a towel wrap if needed

69. What is the most common way to determine an animal’s respiration rate? a. Listening to the heartbeat b. Watching the chest expand with each breath c. Measuring with a thermometer d. Counting the number of yawns per minute

Watching the chest expand with each breath

70. Which artery is most commonly palpated to check a horse’s pulse? a. Mandibular b. Carotid c. Femoral d. Jugular

Carotid

71. What is the main function of genes in a cell? a. To store energy for the cell b. To build proteins according to coded instructions c. To regulate temperature in the body d. To provide nutrients to the cell

To build proteins according to coded instructions

72. Crossing a homozygous horned cow (pp) with a homozygous polled bull (PP) produces: a. All horned offspring b. A mix of codominant traits c. 50% horned, 50% polled d. All polled heterozygotes

All polled heterozygotes

73. What structure did Watson and Crick discover in 1953? a. The nucleotide base pair b. The RNA molecule c. The double-helix structure of DNA d. The chromosome

The double-helix structure of DNA

74. What are deciduous teeth? a. Permanent teeth used for chewing b. Small “wolf teeth” in horses c. The animal’s first set of “baby teeth” d. The back molars in adult animals

The animal’s first set of “baby teeth”

75. At what age do a horse’s permanent corner incisors erupt? a. 4½ years b. 3½ years c. 2½ years d. 6 years

4½ years

76. When do the first permanent incisors erupt in sheep? a. 1½–2 years b. ½–1 year c. 3–4 years d. 1–1½ years

1–1½ years

77. Dogs are the direct descendants of which animal? a. The coyote b. The wolf c. The fox d. The jackal

The wolf

78. Which pony breed is the smallest and originated in Scotland? a. Hackney b. Welsh c. Shetland d. POA

Shetland

79. How high of a sound frequency can cats hear? a. 20,000 cycles per second b. 40,000 cycles per second c. 50,000 cycles per second d. 60,000 cycles per second

60,000 cycles per second

80. What is the cat’s family classification in scientific terms? a. Canidae b. Felidae c. Lupidae d. Fissipedia

Felidae

81. There are over _____ beef cattle breeds in the United States. a. 50 b. 60 c. 70 d. 40

70

82. Which of the following is an example of psychological restraint? a. Using a rope to tie an animal’s legs b. Administering a sedative to calm an animal c. Using a horse’s learned response to lift its leg for hoof trimming d. Placing cattle in a squeeze chute

Using a horse’s learned response to lift its leg for hoof trimming

83. Which of the following is NOT a type of restraint? a. Psychological b. Physical c. Environmental d. Chemical

Environmental

84. Which method of preventing rope from fraying involves melting the rope ends together? a. Whipping b. Crowning c. Ferruling d. Burning

Burning

85. Which knot is commonly used to join two ropes together? a. Surgeon’s knot b. Square knot c. Clove hitch d. Reefer’s knot

Square knot

86. What is the bowline knot especially useful for? a. Tying two ropes together permanently b. Tying around an animal’s neck or body because it won’t tighten under tension c. Creating a decorative rope end d. Preventing the rope from unraveling

Tying around an animal’s neck or body because it won’t tighten under tension

87. Which of the following statements about restraining dogs is true? a. Clients should help restrain their own dogs during veterinary procedures b. Dogs should never be allowed to jump off the exam table after the exam c. Dogs should always be examined on the floor regardless of size d. It is safe to handle tranquilized dogs without caution

Dogs should never be allowed to jump off the exam table after the exam

88. What is the most common type of dog attack in clinics? a. Fear biting b. Dominance aggression c. Play biting d. Food aggression

Fear biting

89. What natural instinct does a head gate take advantage of when restraining hogs? a. Their tendency to freeze when scared b. Their instinct to squeeze through small spaces toward light c. Their need to stay with other hogs d. Their aggressive reaction to loud sounds

Their instinct to squeeze through small spaces toward light

90. Which device is primarily used to restrain beef cattle? a. Nose tongs b. Halter c. Squeeze chute d. Rope hobbles

Squeeze chute

91. Why is stress especially dangerous when handling exotic animals? a. It can make them aggressive but not cause lasting harm b. It can cause shock that may lead to death within 72 hours c. It helps them adapt to human contact d. It makes them easier to restrain

It can cause shock that may lead to death within 72 hours

92. How should a pot-bellied pig be lifted to prevent injury? a. By the front legs b. By the hind legs c. By the trunk of the body using both hands and arms d. With a snout snare

By the trunk of the body using both hands and arms

93. What is the main reason veterinarians examine fecal samples? a. To determine the animal’s diet b. To check for hydration levels c. To detect worm eggs, larvae, and protozoa that cause parasitic diseases d. To test for bacterial infections

To detect worm eggs, larvae, and protozoa that cause parasitic diseases

94. What anticoagulant is commonly added to blood tubes to prevent blood coagulation in laboratory samples? a. Sodium chloride b. EDTA c. Hydrochloric acid d. Glucose

EDTA

95. Which of the following is an example of a serologic test? a. Direct microscopic examination b. Culture c. Cytology d. Agglutination test

Agglutination test

96. What percentage of the energy produced in an X-ray tube is actually emitted as X-rays? a. 10% b. 5% c. 1% d. 50%

1%

97. What does mAs (milliamperage-seconds) control in X-ray production? a. The contrast of the image b. The amount (quantity) of X-rays produced c. The color balance of the image d. The penetration power of the X-rays

The amount (quantity) of X-rays produced

98. What is an abscess? a. A lung filled with air b. A lesion containing matter or pus c. Death of a part or tissue d. Inflammation of a joint

A lesion containing matter or pus

99. What is nephritis? a. Inflammation of the kidney b. Inflammation of the bladder c. Swelling due to excess fluids in a body part d. Death and decomposition of tissue

Inflammation of the kidney

100. Which of the following conditions can thermography help identify? a. Broken bones b. Internal bleeding c. Strains, sprains, bruises, and infections d. Tumor growths

Strains, sprains, bruises, and infections