Knee Pathology & Imaging

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125 Terms

1
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What are the compartments of the knee?

  • Medial

  • Lateral

  • Patella femoral

2
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What percentage of our weight goes through the medial compartment of the knee?

60%

3
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What percentage of our weight goes through the lateral compartment of the knee?

40%

4
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What are all the passive reasons that someone has atraumatic anterior knee pain?

  • Patellofemoral pain syndrome

  • Hoffa syndrome

  • Chondromalacia

  • PFJ OA

  • Osgood-Schlatters

  • Jumpers knee

  • Sinding-Larsen-Johansson’s disease

  • Pre patella bursitis

5
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Anterior knee pain is more common in what populations?

  • Females

  • Active individuals

6
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What are some common aggravating factors for someone with anterior knee pain?

  • Descending stairs

  • Squatting

  • Prolonged sitting

7
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What are the S/S of patellofemoral pain syndrome?

  • Anterior knee pain when going up and down stairs

  • Pain when sitting with knees flexed

  • Pain with squatting

8
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What is Hoffa syndrome?

Impingement of the infrapatellar fat pad between the patella and distal femoral condyle

9
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What athletes most commonly develop Hoffa syndrome?

  • Runners

  • Cyclist

10
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What is chondromalacia?

Softening/fissuring/fibrillation/destruction of articular cartilage on the posterior aspect of the patella that results in damage to the hyaline cartilage and sclerosis of the bone

11
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What are the S/S of PFJ OA?

  • Anterior knee pain

  • Knee crepitus

  • Swelling

  • Pain on PFJ compression

  • Stiffness after sitting

  • Valgus knee deformity

  • Reduced quad strength

  • Morning stiffness that goes away after 30ish minutes

  • Improvement in S/S with activity

12
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What is the average age of someone who develops PFJ OA?

45 yrs

13
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Load and joint position are ___ to one another

Interdependent

14
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What are some possible causes of knee valgus?

  • Gross weakness

    • Hip abductor weakness

    • Quad weakness

    • Hip extensor weakness

  • DF limitation

  • Hip flexion limitation

  • Hyper-pronated foot

  • Trying to avoid pain

15
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Patellar tendinopathy/jumpers knee accounts for what percentage of knee diagnoses?

10%ish

16
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What are the S/S of patellar tendinopathy/Jumpers knee?

  • Pain localized to the inferior pole of the patella

  • Swelling

  • Load-related pain that increases with the demand on the knee extensors

  • Pain with prolonged sitting, squatting, and stairs

  • Movie goers sign

  • Quad weakness

  • Quad/hip flexor flexibility limitations

  • Gluteal weakness

17
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What sex is Osgood-schlatter’s most commonly in? What age range?

10-14 yr old males

18
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What is Osgood-Schlatter’s disease?

Overuse of the patellar tendon which results in the epiphysis at the tibial tuberosity turning from cartilage to bone

19
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What are the risk factors for developing Osgood-Schlatter’s disease?

  • Male

  • Sudden skeletal growth

  • Repetitive activities like jumping and sprinting

20
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What are the S/S of Osgood-Schlatter’s disease?

  • Painful palpation of the tibial tuberosity

  • Pain at the tibial tuberosity that worsens with physical activity or sport

  • Increased pain at the tibial tuberosity with sports activity

  • Bony protuberance at the tibial tuberosity

  • Positive Ely’s test

  • Isometric contraction of quad is painful

  • Overgrowth at tibial tuberosity

  • Alleviation with rest

  • Pain with direct contact to tibial tuberosity

21
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What is Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease?

Necrosis of the inferior pole of the patella

22
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What sex most commonly develops Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease? At what age?

  • Active males aged 9-17 yrs old

23
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What are the S/S of Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease?

  • Pain worsens with exercise

  • Limp after exercise

  • Relieved with rest

  • Positive Ely’s test

  • Pain is at the inferior pole of the patella

24
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What typically causes pre-patella bursitis?

Pressure from constant kneeling or a blow directly to the front of the knee

25
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What are some potential causes of lateral knee pain?

  • LCL injury

  • Lateral meniscal injury

  • PFC

  • IT band syndrome

26
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What is IT band syndrome?

Inflammation of the distal portion of the IT band at and around its insertion

27
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IT band syndrome is the most common etiology of lateral knee pain in what populations?

  • Runners

  • Cyclists

28
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What population rarely develops IT band syndrome?

Non-active population

29
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IT band syndrome most often causes pain at what degree of knee flexion?

30°

30
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What are the S/S of IT band syndrome?

  • Tenderness to palpation of the lateral epicondyle of the femur

  • Positive noble compression test

  • Positive ober test

  • Sharp, burning pain around the lateral joint line

31
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What are some potential causes of medial knee pain?

  • MCL injury

  • Medial meniscus injury

  • Plica

  • Pes anserine bursitis

  • Knee OA

32
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What tendons form the pes anserine?

  • Sartorius

  • Gracilis

  • Semitendinosus

33
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What percentage of people with pes anserine bursitis will also have OA?

20%

34
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What is plica?

A band of thick, fibrotic tissue that extends from the synovial capsule of a joint

35
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If someone has plica syndrome, will they have symptoms during knee flexion or extension? Why?

Flexion cuz that’s when it gets pinched between the patella and femur

36
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Where in the knee does articular cartilage most frequently break down?

  • Medial femoral condyle

  • Patellar articular surface

37
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What are the S/S of a chondral pathology?

  • Pain in the joint (especially with activity)

  • Swelling and stiffness

  • Clicking or locking

  • Instability

  • Noise, clicking, grinding

38
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According to the ICRS grading system, what would a grade of 0 mean?

Normal with no defects

39
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According to the ICRS grading system, what would a grade of 1 mean?

Nearly normal, just some superficial lesions

40
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According to the ICRS grading system, what would a grade of 2 mean?

Abnormal surface with lesions of less than 50% depth

41
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According to the ICRS grading system, what would a grade of 3 mean?

Severely abnormal surface with lesions greater than 50% depth

42
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According to the ICRS grading system, what would a grade of 4 mean?

Severely abnormal surface with full-thickness osteochondral injury

43
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Define an osteochondral pathology

Damage that involves that cartilage AND underlying bone

44
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What is chondral delamination?

When a layer of cartilage peels away from the underlying layer

45
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What is osteochondritis dissecans?

When a fragment of bone and cartilage detach from the underlying bone

46
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What populations most commonly develop osteochondritis dissecans (OCD)?

Adolescent males

47
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What is synovial chondromatosis?

A condition with multiple cartilage-like nodules in the joint

48
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What is the cause of OCD?

Mild, repetitive microtrauma that often results from sports

49
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Where does OCD most commonly develop (from most to least likely)?

  1. Medial femoral condyle (66.2%)

  2. Lateral femoral condyle (18.1%)

  3. Trochlea (9.5%)

  4. Patella (6%)

  5. Tibial plateau (0.2%)

50
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What are the S/S of OCD?

  • Swelling

  • Pain with activity

  • Pain with palpation

  • Vague crepitus

  • Restricted movement range

  • Joint effusion

  • If lesions be unstable or bone be loose:

    • Catching, clicking, or locking

51
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If caught early, how is OCD treated?

With rest

52
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The likelihood of a degenerative meniscal tear decreases with age. True or false?

False, the likelihood increases with age

53
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What is the peak onset of degenerative meniscus tears in males and females?

  • Males: 41-50

  • Females: 61-70

54
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What are the S/S of degenerative meniscal tears?

  • Pain with weight bearing

  • Pain with rotation/pivot motions

  • Swelling

  • Clicking/popping

  • Catching/giving out

55
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Where is OA most commonly found in the body?

Tibiofemoral joint

56
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The prevalence of tibiofemoral OA rises with what two factors?

  • Increasing age

  • Obesity

57
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What radiographic changes are commonly seen in the knee with increasing age?

  • Decreased joint space

  • Osteophyte formation

  • Varus or valgus deformity

58
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What factors make someone at higher risk for symptomatic OA?

  • Very high levels of physical activity correlated with external drivers over one’s life

  • Sedentary lifestyle

  • Diabetes/obesity

59
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What factors put decreases someone’s chances of symptomatic OA?

  • Moderate lvls of PA (ex: running) over the lifespan without external drivers

60
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What are the S/S of tibiofemoral osteoarthritis (OA)?

  • Stiffness after periods of immobility

  • Crepitus

  • Limited ROM

  • Pain at end ROM

  • Pain with weight-bearing

  • Bow-legged

61
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What is a baker’s cyst?

A synovial herniation the forms between the semi membranous and the medial gastrocnemius

62
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A baker’s cyst is a symptom of what other conditions?

  • OA

  • Meniscus tear

63
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What are the S/S of a baker’s cyst?

  • Mass behind the knee

  • Swelling

  • Pain (dull or sharp)

  • Tenderness

64
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What are the S/S of biceps femoris/semimembranosus tendonitis?

  • Pain in the back of the thigh (near knee or hip)

  • Pain that worsens with activity

  • Tenderness to touch

  • Swelling

  • Stiffness

65
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What are some potential causes of biceps femoris/semimembranosus tendonitis?

  • Overuse and repetitive strain

  • Poor strength and flexibility

  • Changes in training

66
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What populations commonly develop popliteus tendonopathy?

Athletes who run/train on hills or banked surfaces (professional runners and triathletes)

67
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What foot abnormality can result in popliteus tendinopathy? Why?

Hyper-pronation of the foot cuz it causes ER of the tibia which puts a strain on the popliteus

68
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What are the S/S of popliteus tendinopathy?

  • Acute pain in the posterolateral knee joint

  • Localized swelling, redness, and tenderness to the lateral side of the knee at the popliteus insertion

69
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What are the S/S of saphenous neuritis/gonalgia parenthetica?

  • Pain in anterior or medial knee

  • Deep thigh ache

  • Paresthesias in saphenous nerve distribution

70
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Saphenous neuritis commonly develops after what?

A trauma or surgery (70% of peeps with TKA develop it)

71
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A MRI is the gold standard for assessing what structures?

  • Ligaments

  • Tendons

  • Cartilage

  • Menisci

72
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When is a knee MRI indicated?

  • Acute knee trauma with suspected internal derangement in the course of posttraumatic assessment

  • Unexplained chronic knee pain

73
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What are CT scans useful to assess?

  • Bone fractures

  • Bony abnormalities

74
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What can a knee ultrasound be helpful in assessing?

  • Soft tissue lesions

  • Swollen bursae

  • Joint effusion

  • Superficial lesions

75
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What is the typical MOI of a patellar dislocation?

Valgus or rotator force with slight knee flexion

76
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What direction does the patella most commonly dislocate?

Laterally

77
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What are the risk factors for patellar subluxation or dislocation?

  • Q angle greater than 20°

  • Excessive ER of tibia

  • Increased IR of the femur

  • Patella Alta

  • Shallow trochlear groove

  • Small, flat patella

78
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What is the common MOI of a tibiofemoral joint dislocation?

High impact trauma (sports, fall from height, MVA)

79
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What issues are commonly seen down the road after someone has a tibiofemoral joint dislocation?

  • Drop foot

  • Lymphedema

80
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What kind of shape does an intercondylar fracture typically make?

“Y” fracture

81
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What populations most commonly suffer distal femur fractures?

  • Older females

  • Young males

82
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Most proximal tibial fractures occur between what ages?

40-60

83
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What tibial plateau fractures most commonly?

Lateral plateau

84
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What is the common MOI of a proximal tibial fracture?

Varus or valgus force with axial compression

85
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What is a type I tibial fracture?

Split down a condyle

86
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What is a type II tibial fracture?

Split with a depression

87
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What is a type III tibial fracture?

Central depression

88
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What is a type IV tibial fracture?

Split fracture, medial plateau (backwards y shape)

89
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What is a type V tibial fracture?

Bicondylar fracture

90
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What is a type VI tibial fracture?

Dissociation of metaphysics and diaphysis

91
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what is the MOI of a patellar fracture?

  • Direct trauma from a fall or blow

  • Indirect trauma from tension forces (avulsion fractures)

92
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What is the most common type of patellar fracture?

Transverse linear fracture through the mid-region of the bone

93
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What is the MOI of a proximal fibula fracture?

  • Direct blow

  • Twisting injury to ankle

  • Varus stress at knee

94
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What other structures are commonly damaged with a proximal fibula fracture?

  • Anterior tibial artery

  • Peroneal nerve

  • Interosseous membrane

95
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What is a segond fracture?

An avulsion fracture on the lateral aspect of the tibial plateau at the insertion of the anterolateral ligament (ALL)

96
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What fracture is highly indicative of an ACL tear and is commonly associated with anterolateral instability?

Segond fracture

97
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What is the MOI of a segond fracture?

  • Forced IR with a varus stress on the bone

98
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What two bundles form the ACL?

  • ANteromedial

  • Posterolateral

99
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What is main function of the ANteromedial bundle? What knee position makes it most taught?

  • Provides most of the stability against anterior tibial translation

  • Tightest in flexion

100
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What are the main functions of the posterolateral bundle? What knee position makes it most taught?

  • Provides medial-lateral and rotational stability

  • Tightest in extension