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Why is phonetics not the same as phonology?
Because phonetics studies speech sounds as physical events—their production, transmission, and perception—while phonology studies how those sounds function systematically in a language, including where they occur and how they pattern together.
Why does the file associate phonetics with performance but phonology with competence?
Because phonetics deals with actual speech sounds as produced and heard, whereas phonology deals with the abstract sound system speakers know and use.
Why is it incomplete to define phonology as only 'the study of sounds'?
Because the file says phonology is not just about sounds themselves, but about how they systematically behave, where they occur, and how they interact with other sounds.
How does the contrast between segmental and suprasegmental phonology show two levels of sound analysis?
Segmental phonology analyzes discrete units such as phonemes, while suprasegmental phonology analyzes features extending over more than one segment, such as intonation.
Why does the file separate accent from dialect?
Because accent refers only to pronunciation, while dialect includes pronunciation plus vocabulary and grammar.
Why is orthography unreliable for sound analysis?
Because one letter can represent more than one sound, one sound can be represented by more than one letter, and some letters are silent.
Why is the IPA more useful than ordinary spelling in phonetics?
Because the IPA is presented as universal and unambiguous, so it represents sounds more directly than orthography.
Why is phonemic transcription more abstract than phonetic transcription?
Because phonemic transcription represents the sound system of a language, while phonetic transcription shows actual pronunciation, including finer detail with diacritics.
Why do diacritics matter in phonetic transcription?
Because they show details of actual pronunciation that are not captured in broad phonemic transcription.
Why does the file call speech an 'overlaid function'?
Because the vocal tract's first biological function is not speech but protecting the airway from food and water; speech is an added function.
Why is the subglottal system necessary for speech even though it does not shape sounds directly?
Because it provides the airflow that speech depends on, and the file identifies English speech as using a pulmonic egressive airstream.
Why is the larynx central to the difference between voiced and voiceless sounds?
Because voicing depends on what the vocal folds and arytenoids do: if they vibrate, the sound is voiced; if they are held apart so air escapes freely, the sound is voiceless.
Why do longer vocal folds produce lower pitch according to the file?
Because they vibrate more slowly, so the resulting pitch is deeper.
Why is the glottal stop not simply another example of voicelessness?
Because in a glottal stop the airflow is momentarily blocked by complete closure at the glottis, not just allowed to pass freely without vibration.
Why does the file treat whisper and breathy voice separately from ordinary voicing?
Because they involve different laryngeal settings from normal voiced or voiceless speech and are not used contrastively in English in the same way.
Why does the velum have 'dual status'?
Because it can function as a passive articulator when the tongue moves toward it, but it also actively controls whether air passes through the nose or not.
Why is the oral vs nasal distinction really a velar-port distinction?
Because the crucial question is whether the velum is raised to block the nasal cavity or lowered to allow airflow through it.
Why are consonants defined differently in phonetics and phonology?
Because phonetically they are described by obstruction or narrowing in the vocal tract, while phonologically they are defined by their role at syllable margins.
Why do consonant descriptions require more than just place and manner?
Because the file also treats airstream mechanism, state of the larynx, and state of the velar port as necessary parts of a full description.
Why are all English consonants said to be pulmonic egressive?
Because in English the airstream is set in motion by the lungs and forced outward.
Why does the file say only voiced and voiceless phonations are contrastive in English?
Because other phonation types like glottal stop, whispery, creaky, and breathy are not used in English to distinguish words in the same systematic way.
Why is place of articulation described as an interaction between active and passive articulators?
Because the constriction is created when a moving articulator approaches or contacts a target articulator.
Why is /w/ treated as special among places of articulation?
Because it involves double articulation and is described as a labio-velar glide.
Why does the file describe manner of articulation in terms of degree of stricture?
Because the key difference among consonant types is how much the airflow is blocked or narrowed.
Why does close approximation 'give rise to friction'?
Because the gap is narrow enough that airflow becomes turbulent and produces audible friction.
Why are fricatives different from approximants if both involve incomplete closure?
Because fricatives create a narrow gap with audible friction, while approximants do not produce audible friction.
Why are affricates treated as a separate manner category?
Because they begin like plosives with complete closure and are released into frication, so they combine two articulatory phases in one segment.
Why are nasals still stops even though air keeps moving?
Because the oral cavity has complete closure, but the lowered velum lets the air escape through the nose.
Why is /k/ described as voiceless, velar, oral, and plosive rather than by only one label?
Because each term captures a different aspect: voicing, place, velic setting, and manner.
Why does the file divide approximants into lateral and central types?
Because airflow pattern matters: /l/ has lateral airflow while /r/ and /j/ have central airflow.
Why is /l/ still an approximant although the tongue makes contact with the alveolar ridge?
Because the air escapes over the lowered sides of the tongue and no audible friction is produced.
Why does the file emphasize the distribution of /r/ in rhotic and non-rhotic accents?
Because the difference is not the sound itself but where it is pronounced: everywhere in rhotic accents, but only before vowels in non-rhotic accents.
Why can vowels not be described by the same framework as consonants?
Because vowels are produced without the kind of obstruction that defines consonants, so their main descriptive dimensions are tongue height, tongue frontness, lip shape, and length.
Why are vowels always voiced in the comparison table in the file?
Because the unmarked vowel description in the file treats voicing as normal for vowels.
Why is vowel height a necessary parameter?
Because vowels differ in how high the tongue is relative to the palate.
Why is vowel frontness a separate parameter from vowel height?
Because two vowels can have similar height but differ in whether the tongue is front, central, or back.
Why does lip shape matter for vowel quality?
Because the file treats rounded, spread, and neutral lip positions as part of how vowels are distinguished.
Why is vowel length described as relative rather than absolute?
Because the duration of a vowel can vary by context, so 'long' and 'short' are comparative labels, not fixed time values.
Why is the difference between /iː/ and /ɪ/ not just a difference in length?
Because the file says /iː/ is also higher and fronter than /ɪ/.
Why is the difference between /uː/ and /ʊ/ not just a difference in length?
Because the file says /uː/ is also higher and backer than /ʊ/.
Why are tense vs lax vowels not reducible to duration alone?
Because the file links them to differences in tongue shape, tongue position, and lip position as well as length.
Why is a monophthong called a 'pure vowel'?
Because its articulation stays relatively stable instead of gliding to another vowel target.
Why is a diphthong not just two separate vowels?
Because it functions as one vowel movement from one position to another within a single syllabic nucleus.
Why is the first element of a diphthong stronger than the second?
Because the file states that the first part is longer and stronger, so the second part is a weaker glide.
Why is a triphthong more than a sequence of three isolated vowels?
Because the file treats it as a single vowel phoneme involving continuous movement across three vocalic positions.
Why are centring diphthongs different from closing diphthongs?
Because centring diphthongs glide toward schwa, while closing diphthongs glide toward a closer vowel.
Why is the Great Vowel Shift useful in a phonology course?
Because it helps explain why modern English vowel pronunciation does not map neatly onto spelling and why long vowels changed historically.
Why does the file distinguish citation form from connected speech form?
Because pronunciation in isolation is often different from pronunciation in continuous speech influenced by surrounding sounds.
Why does connected speech create systematic sound changes?
Because adjacent sounds influence each other in natural continuous speech, creating regular processes like assimilation, elision, and liaison.
Why is assimilation defined as becoming more like a neighbouring sound?
Because the key idea is that one sound changes under the influence of another nearby sound.
Why is regressive assimilation called anticipatory?
Because the following sound influences the earlier one, so the earlier sound changes in anticipation of what comes next.
Why is progressive assimilation called perseverative?
Because the earlier sound carries its influence forward onto the following sound.
Why is coalescent assimilation different from both regressive and progressive assimilation?
Because instead of one sound simply becoming like another, the two adjacent sounds combine into a new sound.
Why is place assimilation so common in connected speech?
Because shifting the place of articulation toward the following sound makes movement between sounds easier.
Why do /t d n/ often change before bilabials?
Because a following bilabial pulls the articulation forward to the lips, creating [p], [b], or [m].
Why do /t d n/ often change before velars?
Because a following velar pulls the articulation back toward the velum, creating [k], [g], or [ŋ].
Why can /s/ become [ʃ] before palato-alveolar or palatal sounds?
Because the following sound shifts the place toward a more palato-alveolar articulation.
Why can /z/ become [ʒ] before palato-alveolar or palatal sounds?
Because the following sound influences the place of articulation and creates a more similar fricative.
Why is voicing assimilation more limited in English than place assimilation according to the file?
Because the file says English only has voiced-to-voiceless assimilation in a small number of common phrases.
Why is /ð/ especially affected in progressive assimilation?
Because the file specifically states that progressive assimilation in English occurs in the voiced dental fricative /ð/ after certain preceding sounds.
Why does /ð/ become [n] after /n/?
Because the preceding /n/ influences the following dental fricative so it matches more closely.
Why does /ð/ become [l] after /l/?
Because the preceding /l/ carries its articulatory influence onto the following /ð/.
Why does /ð/ become [s] or [z] after /s/ or /z/?
Because the preceding fricative influences /ð/, making it match in a simpler way in connected speech.
Why is coalescent assimilation in /t + j/ analyzed as [tʃ]?
Because the two adjacent sounds merge into one new segment rather than one merely copying the other.
Why is coalescent assimilation in /d + j/ analyzed as [dʒ]?
Because /d/ and /j/ combine into a single affricate-like outcome.
Why is miss you an example of coalescent assimilation?
Because /s + j/ combine into [ʃ], creating a new merged result.
Why is close your an example of coalescent assimilation?
Because /z + j/ combine into [ʒ], not just a slightly modified /z/.
Why does elision often target plosives?
Because deleting a plosive can simplify a complex consonant cluster in connected speech.
Why is elision different from assimilation?
Because in assimilation a sound changes, while in elision a sound is lost.
Why does /t/ tend to be elided between two consonants?
Because that position creates a cluster that can be simplified without changing meaning.
Why does the file mention restrictions on /t/ and /d/ elision?
Because elision is not automatic in every environment; it depends on specific phonological contexts.
Why are clothes and months examples of fricative elision?
Because a fricative present in citation form is lost in connected speech form.
Why is vowel elision in the file mainly about schwa?
Because the file specifically says schwa can be elided before /n, l, r/.
Why is liaison treated separately from assimilation and elision?
Because liaison adds a linking sound between words, whereas assimilation changes an existing sound and elision removes one.
Why is linking /r/ especially associated with non-rhotic accents?
Because in non-rhotic accents /r/ is normally absent except before a vowel, including across word boundaries.
Why is intrusive /r/ different from linking /r/?
Because intrusive /r/ is inserted even though there is no underlying /r/ in the word itself.
Why does intrusive /r/ count as insertion rather than assimilation?
Because a new [r] is added between vowels rather than an existing sound changing to become like another.
Why can linking [j] appear after certain front vowels?
Because the file treats [j] as a glide that eases the transition from those vowels to a following vowel-initial word.
Why can linking [w] appear after certain back or rounded vowels?
Because [w] creates a smoother transition between those vowels and a following vowel-initial word.
Why is a phoneme called the smallest contrastive unit?
Because changing it can change one word into another.
Why are phonemes abstract units?
Because they are part of the sound system of a language, not the concrete sounds pronounced in actual speech.
Why can a phoneme not be 'pronounced' directly?
Because only actual speech sounds—phones—are pronounced; the phoneme is realized through them in context.
Why are minimal pairs strong evidence for phonemes?
Because they show that replacing one sound with another in the same position changes meaning.
Why are /p/ and /k/ phonemes in cat vs pat?
Because they occur in overlapping distribution and create a difference in meaning.
Why is an allophone called a contextually determined variant?
Because its occurrence depends on phonological environment rather than changing lexical meaning.
Why do allophones often occur in complementary distribution?
Because each variant appears in a predictable environment where the others do not.
Why must allophones of one phoneme be phonetically similar?
Because they are variants of the same underlying sound, so their similarities must be more striking than their differences.
Why can sounds in overlapping distribution still be allophones?
Because the file allows free variation: different pronunciations in the same environment that do not create a meaning contrast.
Why is it inaccurate to say 'two phonemes in free variation'?
Because free variation is non-contrastive; if two sounds are truly phonemes, they are contrastive.
Why is complementary distribution not enough by itself to prove allophony?
Because the file gives /h/ and /ŋ/ in English as phonemes even though they are in complementary distribution.
Why are [tʰ], [t], [tⁿ], and [tʷ] considered allophones of /t/?
Because they are context-dependent variants of the same phoneme and remain phonetically similar.
Why are the three stages of plosive articulation important?
Because many allophonic processes, such as inaudible release or aspiration, affect specific stages of plosive production.
Why is inaudible release expected before another plosive?
Because the first plosive is not audibly released before the next closure begins.
Why is kept an example of inaudible release?
Because the plosive occurs before another plosive, so the release is not clearly heard.
Why is aspiration associated with voiceless plosives at the beginning of a stressed syllable?
Because the file defines aspiration as a brief period of voicelessness after release in exactly that environment.
Why does aspiration sound like a short [h]?
Because it is a brief interval of voiceless airflow after the plosive release.
Why are /p t k/ unaspirated after /s/?
Because the file states that after /s/ these voiceless plosives do not have the aspirated release found in stressed-syllable onset position.
Why is aspiration a positional allophone rather than a separate phoneme?
Because it occurs predictably in a specific environment and does not create a change in lexical meaning.
Why can devoicing be related to aspiration in the file?
Because the file notes that devoicing can be the realization of aspiration, so the two are connected phonetically.
Why can voiced obstruents become devoiced before or after silence or a voiceless consonant?
Because surrounding voiceless contexts reduce voicing, producing a partially or fully devoiced realization.