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Molecular instrumentation: STR (short tandem repeats)
Molecular instrumentation: Widely used for DNA sequence
Molecular instrumentation: FISH
Molecular instrumentation: Localization of a specific DNA sequence or an entire chromosome in a cell. Detects targets in cytology/histology
Sothern Blot
Detects specific DNA sequences by restricting endonuclease and uses gel electrophoresis
Western Blot
Detects and identifies proteins within a sample using gel electrophoresis. Used to detect antibodies to HIV
Apolipoproteins
Proteins on the surface of lipoproteins. Like most proteins, they can be detected/measured using antibodies
DAT
Used to detect antibodies sensitizing RBCs in vivo
IAT
Detects antibodies in plasma
Sensitization
The initial binding of an antibody to antigen on RBCs surface. 1st step in the immune process
Coating (sensitization)
The result of binding where the RBCs become covered with antibodies
B cell lymphocytes
Type of lymph responsible for producing antibodies in response to foreign proteins from bacteria, viruses, and tumor cells
Helper T Cells (CD4+)
Type of lymph that coordinates immune response and directly attacks/kills infected cells and tumor cells. They produce cytokines. Adaptive immune response
NK Cells
Type of lymph that attacks/kills infected cells and tumor cells but without the need for prior sensitization. Innate immune response
Sensitivity +
The degree in which a test can identify a + result for a disease
Specificity -
The degree in which those without the disease will test negative
Indirect (Unconjugated) Bilirubin
0.0-0.3 mg/dL
Produced by the breakdown of RBCs and binds to albumin for transport to the liver. Fat soluble (insoluble)
Direct (Conjugated) Bilirubin
excreted in bile 18%, stool 80% and urine 2%
0.0-0.7 mg/dL
Formed in the liver, water soluble, and converted to urobilinogen (excreted in bile _%, stool __% and urine __%)
CD45 marker
A marker present on lymphs, monos, and granulocytes - immune cell signaling
(not plasma cells and erythrocytes). Helps to diagnose malignancies
Reticulocyte
HgH Bodies
Immature RBCs with darker inclusions using supravital stain
Faint blue inclusions resembling sugar using supravital stain
Amphetamine perscription
Prescribed for narcolepsy and ADHD
Digoxin prescription
Prescribed for congestive heart failure
Dilantin prescription
Prescribed for treatment of therapeutic seizure disorders
Phenobarbital prescription
A slow acting barbituate that controls seizures
Chemiluminescence
(low heat, indirect light)
Emission of light by molecules in an excited state with low heat — not a direct measurement of light
Photometry
Measures the intensity of light at a -specific- wavelength to determine concentration of a substance
Spectrophotometry
Measures intensity of light (electromagnetic energy) at -different ranges- of wavelengths give info about the chemical composition
Chromotagraphy
Separates and analyzes based on physical properties. Used for identification and quantification
Nephelometry
Measures intensity of light scattered at a 90 degree angle. Good for small particles
Turbidimetry
Measures decrease in transmitted light intensity at 180 degrees. Good for large particles
Absorbance calculation
2 - log10% T
Biosafety level 2+ or 3
Biosafety level for handling TB sputum and TM materials
(Organisms that can cause potentially lethal disease through respiratory transmission)
Universal precautions
Which precaution is to prevent the transmission of bloodborne pathogens (e.g., HIV, Hepatitis B) by treating all human blood and certain body fluids as potentially infectious.
Standard precaution
Which precaution applies to all patients, regardless of their diagnosis or presumed infection status
MCV calculation and ranges
HCT / RBC
80-100
Avg volume of RBCs
MCHC calculation and ranges
HBG / HCT
30-35
Avg weight of HGB in RBC
MCH calculation and ranges
HGB / RBC
26-32
Avg weight of HGB in each RBC
Class C fire extinguishers
Which class of fire extinguisher is used for electrical equipment
°F = (°C x 9/5) +32
Chris gives 9/5 added to 32 men
F to C equation
Multiple sclerosis
Which disorder requires observation of oligoclonal immunoglobulin bands on CSF protein electrophoresis
Directly proportional
Glucose attaching to HGB is called a ketoamine
The formation of
HbA1c is ________ proportional to plasma glucose concentration
Calcium
The parathyroid glands primarily respond to low ____levels in the blood by increasing the secretion of PTH
Peptide bonds
What kind of bond does a biuret reaction (colorimetric test) for total protein analysis depend on?
Whole blood lead test
What is used as a biomarker of human total body lead exposure?
Erythrocyte zinc protoporphyrin (ZPP)
A red-purple solid that is soluble in water and is found in red blood cells when heme production is inhibited by lead and/or by lack of iron
(lack of iron = increased ___)
Pancreas
Trypsin, lipase and amylase are primarily found in the ___.
Digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.
Biliary tract obstruction
(ALP on its own: bone disorder)
Increased ALP and GGT enzymes indicate which disease?
Only increased ALP indicates which disease?
Hepatic disorder (viral hepatitis)
(Liver)
Increased ALT, AST, LD enzymes indicate which disease?
Skeletal muscle disorders
Increased AST, LD, and CK enzymes indicate which disease?
Cardiac muscle disorder
Increased AST, LD, CK, and cT (troponin) enzymes indicate which disease?
Valinomycin is the ionophore for potassium selective electrodes
What is the key membrane component for a potassium selective electrode?
Vitamin D
The conversion to the active form maintains calcium and phosphorus levels in the body, as well as regulating bone health
The kidneys are the site of the active form of ____.
Elevated levels = bacterial infection
Low levels = viral infection
Elevated levels of procalcitonin (typically above 0.1 ng/mL) suggest a _____ infection, while low levels indicate a ____ condition.
HPLC: 5000-6000 psi
Modern HPLC (High-Performance Liquid Chromatography) systems can work at pressures up to ____ psi
Insulin and glycogen
What is produced by the islets of Langerhans, which are contained in the pancreas?
Type 2 diabetes
Which is a non-insulin dependent diabetes, characterized by insulin resistance and progressive hyperglycemia? AKA adult-onset diabetes
Type 1 diabetes
Which is a type of insulin-resistant diabetes, which is usually diagnosed in children and young adults? AKA juvenile diabetes
Diabetes mellitus
What is the most common condition in which the renal threshold for glucose is exceeded?
Renal threshold
_____ can be helpful in assessing both tubular and nonrenal disease states
150-199 mg/dL
What range indicates a borderline triglyceride range which can increase the risk of heart disease?
Liver disease
Which condition would likely be the cause of in increased ALP? Elevated levels in adults can be indicative of osteoblasts (bone tumor)
Azotemia
A term that refers to an excess of urea or other nitrogenous compounds in the blood
Uremia
A condition characterized by the accumulation of waste products, particularly urea, in the blood due to kidney failure
Atherosclerosis
A condition involving deposition of plaques in the blood vessels that have been proven to lead to coronary artery disease
Neutrophil
A type of granulocyte that functions to aid in the immune response and helps the body fight off infections. When microorganisms enter the body, they are the first immune cells to respond
Acute leukemia
A hematological disease that has an increased number of immature cells
Thrombocytes
A decrease in ____ causes patients on radiation and chemotherapy to develop bleeding problems
Sudan black B
A diazo dye that stains cellular lipids and is a useful technique for the differentiation of AML from ALL
B lymphocytes
Cell that differentiates further in the bone marrow while encountering an antigen
Megaloblastic anemia
A macrocytic anemia that is the result of vitamin B12 and/or folic acid deficiency.
This anemia has larger cells having a more open chromatin pattern in the nucleus, and larger hypersegmented neutrophils.
Thrombin time (TT)
A test that measures the concentration and activity of fibrinogen in stage II and monitors coumarin therapy
Multimere test, ristocetin cofactor, and vW antigen test
Which 3 tests are diagnostic for con Willebrand disease
Landsteiner's rule
What states that if an agglutinogen (antigen) is present on the red blood cells, the corresponding agglutinin (antibody) must be absent from the plasma?
Bacterial antigen exposure
They share structural similarities with ABO blood group antigens
Naturally occurring ABO antibodies are believed to be the result of exposure to ___.
CMV Cytomegalovirus
Pre storage leukocyte reduction has been shown to reduce the transmission risk of _____.
Lymphoproliferative disease
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV/HHV-4), which, in the transplant setting, may cause _____.
12 months
What is the donor deferral time for incarceration in a correctional facility >72 hours?
Nails
Where does the fungal infection Onychomycosis occur?
Eikenella corrodens
Gram = coccobacilli often associated with broken skin from human teeth
Proteus mirabilis
A gram negative rod in a midstream urine that swarms the plate. It is recognized as an opportunistic pathogen
Streptococcal grouping
Which test uses a form of particle agglutination in which ab are bound to the surface of latex beads which bind to the ag present to produce a visible clump?
Tube monolayer cell culture
The most common format for viral isolation
Common pili (looks like mini flagella)
Helps bacteria attach to the hosts cell surfaces
Campylobacter, salmonella, and shigella spp
3 pathogens that are routinely examined when a stool specimen is received for culture
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
An organism commonly found in freshwater. It produces a grape like odor, is oxidase positive, and indole negative
Ketotic Hyperglycemia
A condition where you have high blood sugars (usually >250 mg/dL) plus the presence of ketones in your blood and urine
Sudan black
The identification of oval fat bodies, lipids, and myeloid vs lymphoid leukemia are confirmed with which stain?
Albumin
What protein is the most sensitive when using a reagent strip test?
Normal flora
E coli, proteus mirabilis, and klebsiella pneumoniae are considered to be_____
Haemophilus influenza and streptococcus pneumoniae
Which two bacteria are the most common causes of bacterial conjunctivitis in children?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Gram negative rod with a grapelike odor. The colonies are flat and spreading with rough edge and a metallic sheen
Acid-fast positive organisms
Which specific bacteria, parasitic cysts and rare fungal forms contain mycolic acid in their cell wall and retain the basic dye during acid alcohol rinsing?
Skin, hair, nails
Where are KOH solutions of 10-20% useful for the identification of fungi to break down the proteinaceous material, leaving the fungal elements?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
A culture of urethral discharge grows gram negative dipplococci and is oxidase positive. What is likely the organism?
Prokaryocytes
What cells do not have a nucleus or any membrane bound organelles, and their ribosomes are a smaller size than eukaryotic ribosomes?
A larger volume of blood
Parasites
The thick smear is used to screen _____
The thin smear is used to identify _____ so they are not as distorted
Gram positive cocci in clusters
How do staphylococcus spp appear with a gram stain?
Sudan III stain
What stain is used frequently for fat during a qualitative exam which stains red - orange
Germ tube test
This test depends on candida albicans to produce hyphae like extensions when places in a sheep or rabbit serum
Yeast and mold
Fungi can be generally divided into which two broad groups based on their appearance of the colonies
Serum and CSF
Borrelia burgdorferi
Lyme disease depends on finding antibodies in which two body fluids? The etiologic agent is the bacterium _____.
Pinworms
Cellophane tape preparation is the proper specimen to collect for _____ examination