MLS AMT Definitions/Questions

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119 Terms

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Molecular instrumentation: STR (short tandem repeats)

Molecular instrumentation: Widely used for DNA sequence

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Molecular instrumentation: FISH

Molecular instrumentation: Localization of a specific DNA sequence or an entire chromosome in a cell. Detects targets in cytology/histology

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Sothern Blot

Detects specific DNA sequences by restricting endonuclease and uses gel electrophoresis

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Western Blot

Detects and identifies proteins within a sample using gel electrophoresis. Used to detect antibodies to HIV

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Apolipoproteins

Proteins on the surface of lipoproteins. Like most proteins, they can be detected/measured using antibodies

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DAT

Used to detect antibodies sensitizing RBCs in vivo

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IAT

Detects antibodies in plasma

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Sensitization

The initial binding of an antibody to antigen on RBCs surface. 1st step in the immune process

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Coating (sensitization)

The result of binding where the RBCs become covered with antibodies

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B cell lymphocytes

Type of lymph responsible for producing antibodies in response to foreign proteins from bacteria, viruses, and tumor cells

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Helper T Cells (CD4+)

Type of lymph that coordinates immune response and directly attacks/kills infected cells and tumor cells. They produce cytokines. Adaptive immune response

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NK Cells

Type of lymph that attacks/kills infected cells and tumor cells but without the need for prior sensitization. Innate immune response

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Sensitivity +

The degree in which a test can identify a + result for a disease

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Specificity -

The degree in which those without the disease will test negative

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Indirect (Unconjugated) Bilirubin

0.0-0.3 mg/dL

Produced by the breakdown of RBCs and binds to albumin for transport to the liver. Fat soluble (insoluble)

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Direct (Conjugated) Bilirubin

excreted in bile 18%, stool 80% and urine 2%

0.0-0.7 mg/dL

Formed in the liver, water soluble, and converted to urobilinogen (excreted in bile _%, stool __% and urine __%)

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CD45 marker

A marker present on lymphs, monos, and granulocytes - immune cell signaling

(not plasma cells and erythrocytes). Helps to diagnose malignancies

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  1. Reticulocyte

  2. HgH Bodies

  1. Immature RBCs with darker inclusions using supravital stain

  2. Faint blue inclusions resembling sugar using supravital stain

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Amphetamine perscription

Prescribed for narcolepsy and ADHD

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Digoxin prescription

Prescribed for congestive heart failure

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Dilantin prescription

Prescribed for treatment of therapeutic seizure disorders

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Phenobarbital prescription

A slow acting barbituate that controls seizures

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Chemiluminescence

(low heat, indirect light)

Emission of light by molecules in an excited state with low heat — not a direct measurement of light

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Photometry

Measures the intensity of light at a -specific- wavelength to determine concentration of a substance

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Spectrophotometry

Measures intensity of light (electromagnetic energy) at -different ranges- of wavelengths give info about the chemical composition

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Chromotagraphy

Separates and analyzes based on physical properties. Used for identification and quantification

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Nephelometry

Measures intensity of light scattered at a 90 degree angle. Good for small particles

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Turbidimetry

Measures decrease in transmitted light intensity at 180 degrees. Good for large particles

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Absorbance calculation

2 - log10% T

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Biosafety level 2+ or 3

Biosafety level for handling TB sputum and TM materials

(Organisms that can cause potentially lethal disease through respiratory transmission)

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Universal precautions

Which precaution is to prevent the transmission of bloodborne pathogens (e.g., HIV, Hepatitis B) by treating all human blood and certain body fluids as potentially infectious.

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Standard precaution

Which precaution applies to all patients, regardless of their diagnosis or presumed infection status

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MCV calculation and ranges

HCT / RBC

80-100

Avg volume of RBCs

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MCHC calculation and ranges

HBG / HCT

30-35

Avg weight of HGB in RBC

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MCH calculation and ranges

HGB / RBC

26-32

Avg weight of HGB in each RBC

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Class C fire extinguishers

Which class of fire extinguisher is used for electrical equipment

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°F = (°C x 9/5) +32

Chris gives 9/5 added to 32 men

F to C equation

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Multiple sclerosis

Which disorder requires observation of oligoclonal immunoglobulin bands on CSF protein electrophoresis

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Directly proportional

Glucose attaching to HGB is called a ketoamine

The formation of
HbA1c is ________ proportional to plasma glucose concentration

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Calcium

The parathyroid glands primarily respond to low ____levels in the blood by increasing the secretion of PTH

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Peptide bonds

What kind of bond does a biuret reaction (colorimetric test) for total protein analysis depend on?

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Whole blood lead test

What is used as a biomarker of human total body lead exposure?

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Erythrocyte zinc protoporphyrin (ZPP)

A red-purple solid that is soluble in water and is found in red blood cells when heme production is inhibited by lead and/or by lack of iron

(lack of iron = increased ___)

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Pancreas

Trypsin, lipase and amylase are primarily found in the ___.

Digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.

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Biliary tract obstruction

(ALP on its own: bone disorder)

Increased ALP and GGT enzymes indicate which disease?

Only increased ALP indicates which disease?

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Hepatic disorder (viral hepatitis)

(Liver)

Increased ALT, AST, LD enzymes indicate which disease?

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Skeletal muscle disorders

Increased AST, LD, and CK enzymes indicate which disease?

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Cardiac muscle disorder

Increased AST, LD, CK, and cT (troponin) enzymes indicate which disease?

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Valinomycin is the ionophore for potassium selective electrodes

What is the key membrane component for a potassium selective electrode?

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Vitamin D

The conversion to the active form maintains calcium and phosphorus levels in the body, as well as regulating bone health

The kidneys are the site of the active form of ____.

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Elevated levels = bacterial infection

Low levels = viral infection

Elevated levels of procalcitonin (typically above 0.1 ng/mL) suggest a _____ infection, while low levels indicate a ____ condition.

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HPLC: 5000-6000 psi

Modern HPLC (High-Performance Liquid Chromatography) systems can work at pressures up to ____ psi

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Insulin and glycogen

What is produced by the islets of Langerhans, which are contained in the pancreas?

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Type 2 diabetes

Which is a non-insulin dependent diabetes, characterized by insulin resistance and progressive hyperglycemia? AKA adult-onset diabetes

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Type 1 diabetes

Which is a type of insulin-resistant diabetes, which is usually diagnosed in children and young adults? AKA juvenile diabetes

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Diabetes mellitus

What is the most common condition in which the renal threshold for glucose is exceeded?

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Renal threshold

_____ can be helpful in assessing both tubular and nonrenal disease states

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150-199 mg/dL

What range indicates a borderline triglyceride range which can increase the risk of heart disease?

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Liver disease

Which condition would likely be the cause of in increased ALP? Elevated levels in adults can be indicative of osteoblasts (bone tumor)

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Azotemia

A term that refers to an excess of urea or other nitrogenous compounds in the blood

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Uremia

A condition characterized by the accumulation of waste products, particularly urea, in the blood due to kidney failure

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Atherosclerosis

A condition involving deposition of plaques in the blood vessels that have been proven to lead to coronary artery disease

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Neutrophil

A type of granulocyte that functions to aid in the immune response and helps the body fight off infections. When microorganisms enter the body, they are the first immune cells to respond

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Acute leukemia

A hematological disease that has an increased number of immature cells

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Thrombocytes

A decrease in ____ causes patients on radiation and chemotherapy to develop bleeding problems

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Sudan black B

A diazo dye that stains cellular lipids and is a useful technique for the differentiation of AML from ALL

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B lymphocytes

Cell that differentiates further in the bone marrow while encountering an antigen

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Megaloblastic anemia

A macrocytic anemia that is the result of vitamin B12 and/or folic acid deficiency.

This anemia has larger cells having a more open chromatin pattern in the nucleus, and larger hypersegmented neutrophils.

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Thrombin time (TT)

A test that measures the concentration and activity of fibrinogen in stage II and monitors coumarin therapy

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Multimere test, ristocetin cofactor, and vW antigen test

Which 3 tests are diagnostic for con Willebrand disease

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Landsteiner's rule

What states that if an agglutinogen (antigen) is present on the red blood cells, the corresponding agglutinin (antibody) must be absent from the plasma?

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Bacterial antigen exposure

They share structural similarities with ABO blood group antigens

Naturally occurring ABO antibodies are believed to be the result of exposure to ___.

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CMV Cytomegalovirus

Pre storage leukocyte reduction has been shown to reduce the transmission risk of _____.

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Lymphoproliferative disease

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV/HHV-4), which, in the transplant setting, may cause _____.

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12 months

What is the donor deferral time for incarceration in a correctional facility >72 hours?

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Nails

Where does the fungal infection Onychomycosis occur?

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Eikenella corrodens

Gram = coccobacilli often associated with broken skin from human teeth

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Proteus mirabilis

A gram negative rod in a midstream urine that swarms the plate. It is recognized as an opportunistic pathogen

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Streptococcal grouping

Which test uses a form of particle agglutination in which ab are bound to the surface of latex beads which bind to the ag present to produce a visible clump?

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Tube monolayer cell culture

The most common format for viral isolation

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Common pili (looks like mini flagella)

Helps bacteria attach to the hosts cell surfaces

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Campylobacter, salmonella, and shigella spp

3 pathogens that are routinely examined when a stool specimen is received for culture

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Pseudomonas aeruginosa

An organism commonly found in freshwater. It produces a grape like odor, is oxidase positive, and indole negative

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Ketotic Hyperglycemia

A condition where you have high blood sugars (usually >250 mg/dL) plus the presence of ketones in your blood and urine

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Sudan black

The identification of oval fat bodies, lipids, and myeloid vs lymphoid leukemia are confirmed with which stain?

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Albumin

What protein is the most sensitive when using a reagent strip test?

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Normal flora

E coli, proteus mirabilis, and klebsiella pneumoniae are considered to be_____

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Haemophilus influenza and streptococcus pneumoniae

Which two bacteria are the most common causes of bacterial conjunctivitis in children?

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Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Gram negative rod with a grapelike odor. The colonies are flat and spreading with rough edge and a metallic sheen

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Acid-fast positive organisms

Which specific bacteria, parasitic cysts and rare fungal forms contain mycolic acid in their cell wall and retain the basic dye during acid alcohol rinsing?

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Skin, hair, nails

Where are KOH solutions of 10-20% useful for the identification of fungi to break down the proteinaceous material, leaving the fungal elements?

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Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A culture of urethral discharge grows gram negative dipplococci and is oxidase positive. What is likely the organism?

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Prokaryocytes

What cells do not have a nucleus or any membrane bound organelles, and their ribosomes are a smaller size than eukaryotic ribosomes?

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A larger volume of blood

Parasites

The thick smear is used to screen _____

The thin smear is used to identify _____ so they are not as distorted

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Gram positive cocci in clusters

How do staphylococcus spp appear with a gram stain?

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Sudan III stain

What stain is used frequently for fat during a qualitative exam which stains red - orange

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Germ tube test

This test depends on candida albicans to produce hyphae like extensions when places in a sheep or rabbit serum

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Yeast and mold

Fungi can be generally divided into which two broad groups based on their appearance of the colonies

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Serum and CSF

Borrelia burgdorferi

Lyme disease depends on finding antibodies in which two body fluids? The etiologic agent is the bacterium _____.

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Pinworms

Cellophane tape preparation is the proper specimen to collect for _____ examination