RAD 211 Comprehensive Test Review: Palliative Radiation Therapy and Imaging Techniques

Sonography uses high-frequency sound waves in the range of _____ MHz.

a. 1 to 3

b. 25 to 40

c. 1 to 10

d. 2 to 20

d. 2 to 20

Ultrasound images that demonstrate dynamic motion or changes within a structure are termed:

a. fusion imaging.

b. real-time imaging.

c. pulse echo sonography.

d. sonographic elastography.

b. real-time imaging.

What type of material makes up the functional aspect of the transducer that creates the high-frequency sound?

a. Iron oxide

b. Crystals

c. Silver/chromium alloy

d. Tungsten

b. Crystals

Which generation of ultrasound unit first introduced a two-dimensional gray scale?

a. Doppler

b. Brightness mode (B-mode)

c. A-mode

d. Real-time

b. Brightness mode (B-mode)

Which of the following imaging modalities can best distinguish between a solid mass and a cyst in the breast?

a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

b. Digital mammography

c. Sonography

d. Film-screen mammography

c. Sonography

Which type of ultrasound unit is used to examine the structure and behavior of flowing blood?

a. A-mode

b. Real-time

c. Patient mode (B-mode)

d. Doppler

d. Doppler

A sonographer is expected to produce and evaluate the ultrasound images.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

A sonologist is a physician qualified to interpret sonographic studies.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

A transducer serves as both a transmitter and receiver of echo waves.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

According to current research, there are moderate adverse biologic effects associated with the use of medical ultrasound.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

b. False

A loss of ____ of trabecular bone is necessary before it can be visualized on conventional radiographs.

a. 10% to 20%

b. 2% to 5%

c. 30% to 50%

d. 60% to 70%

c. 30% to 50%

A patient with a spine T-score of between -1 and -2.5 is classified according to the World Health Organization as:

a. normal.

b. severely osteoporotic.

c. osteopenic.

d. osteoporotic.

c. osteopenic.

A patient's T-score given in a bone density report:

a. compares the patient's BMD with that of an age- and sex-matched normal population.

b. compares the patient's BMD with that of an age-matched normal population.

c. is the same for all measurement sites.

d. compares the patient's BMD with that of a young, healthy person of the same gender.

d. compares the patient's BMD with that of a young, healthy person of the same gender.

A patient's Z-score given in a bone density report:

a. compares the patient's BMD with that of an age-matched normal population.

b. compares the patient's BMD with that of an average individual of the same sex and age.

c. compares the patient's BMD with that of the normal population.

d. is the same for all measurement sites.

b. compares the patient's BMD with that of an average individual of the same sex and age.

Bone cells that are responsible for bone resorption are:

a. osteoclasts.

b. osteons.

c. osteoblasts.

d. osteocytes.

a. osteoclasts.

Estrogen replacement therapy is given primarily to:

a. stimulate new bone growth.

b. increase blood flow to bone.

c. reduce bone loss.

d. promote healing of stress fractures of the hip.

c. reduce bone loss.

Which is the method of choice for evaluating trabecular bone?

a. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

b. Quantitative computed tomography

c. Dual-energy photon absorptiometry

d. Quantitative ultrasound

b. Quantitative computed tomography

Which of the following is NOT a possible risk factor for osteoporosis?

a. Alcohol abuse

b. Estrogen deficiency

c. Excessive body weight

d. Sedentary lifestyle

c. Excessive body weight

Which of the following is NOT a technique or method of bone densitometry being performed today?

a. Quantitative ultrasound

b. Quantitative computed tomography (QCT)

c. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

d. Single-energy photon absorptiometry (SPA)

d. Single-energy photon absorptiometry (SPA)

Which of the following techniques or methods provides bone mineral density (BMD) measurements for both trabecular and cortical bones?

a. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

b. Quantitative ultrasound

c. Quantitative computed tomography

d. All of the above

c. Quantitative computed tomography

Which other region of the body can be scanned if the patient has spine or hip artifacts (i.e., advanced arthritis)?

a. Mandible

b. Cervical spine

c. Forearm

d. Foot

c. Forearm

Which region of the spine is scanned during a DXA procedure?

a. C7-T-5

b. T-12 to the iliac crest

c. T1 to T-12

d. Sacroiliac joints

b. T-12 to the iliac crest

Which technique or method is most common for measuring bone density using a peripheral site such as the os calcis?

a. All of the above

b. Single-energy x-ray absorptiometry

c. Quantitative ultrasound

d. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

c. Quantitative ultrasound

An existing vertebral fracture has been shown to double the risk of subsequent fracture.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

In thin, elderly females, it is difficult to obtain an accurate soft-tissue analysis during a DXA scan.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

Osteoclasts are the cells responsible for the building of new bone or bone repair.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

b. False

The effective dose from a bone density examination of both spine and hip is typically greater than 10 µSv (microSievert).

Select one:

a. True

b. False

b. False

The proximal femur (hip) and the lumbar spine are preferred sites for central analysis for bone density.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

Blood vessels, connective tissue, and other small structures seen on a mammogram are termed:

a. lobules.

b. ampulla.

c. alveoli.

d. trabeculae.

d. trabeculae.

Computer-aided detection (CAD) is reported to improve cancer detection rates by:

a. 4%.

b. 50%.

c. 2%.

d. 5% to 15%.

d. 5% to 15%.

How should a breast implant be moved for a craniocaudal projection?

a. It is displaced anteriorly toward the apex.

b. It is displaced laterally.

c. It is displaced posteriorly toward the chest wall.

d. No attempt should be made to move the implant because of the danger of rupture.

c. It is displaced posteriorly toward the chest wall.

In which quadrant of the left breast would the 7 o'clock position be located?

a. LIQ

b. LOQ

c. UIQ

d. UOQ

a. LIQ

The 2 o'clock position in the left breast corresponds to the ____ o'clock position in the right breast.

a. 10

b. 2

c. 5

d. 8

a. 10

The American Cancer Society estimates one in _____ women will develop invasive breast cancer.

a. four

b. six

c. two

d. eight

d. eight

The junction between the inferior aspect of the breast and anterior chest wall is termed the:

a. pectoralis major.

b. retromammary space.

c. inframammary fold.

d. inferior margin.

c. inframammary fold.

The most common projections performed in mammography as routine projections throughout the United States and Canada are:

a. unilateral CC, MLO, XCCL, and ML.

b. bilateral CC and MLO.

c. unilateral CC, MLO, and XCCL.

d. bilateral CC, MLO, and ML.

b. bilateral CC and MLO.

The most common type of breast cancer is:

a. fibroadenoma.

b. intraductal papilloma.

c. infiltrating ductal carcinoma.

d. lobular carcinoma.

c. infiltrating ductal carcinoma.

The U.S. Mammography Quality Standards Act (MQSA) of October 1994 requires that:

a. all sites (except VA facilities) meet quality standards and be certified by the DHHS.

b. patient skin dose be reduced to less than 200 mrad per projection as monitored by the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS).

c. all women older than age 40 have a screening mammogram.

d. all mammograms be performed with film-screen systems with less than a 2% repeat rate.

a. all sites (except VA facilities) meet quality standards and be certified by the DHHS.

What is another term for the tail of the breast?

a. Axillary prolongation

b. Axilla

c. Areola

d. Caudal portion

a. Axillary prolongation

What is the breast classification of a 35-year-old woman without children?

a. Fatty

b. Fibro-fatty

c. Fibroglandular

d. Fibroconnective

c. Fibroglandular

What is the breast classification of a 45-year-old woman with three or more pregnancies?

a. Fibroconnective

b. Fatty

c. Fibro-fatty

d. Fibroglandular

c. Fibro-fatty

What is the chief disadvantage of using MRI as a breast screening tool?

a. Poor tissue resolution

b. Patient discomfort

c. High patient dose

d. High false-positive rate

d. High false-positive rate

What is the energy source used with digital breast tomosynthesis (DBT)?

a. Conventional mammography x-ray tube

b. Pulsed magnetic field

c. Radionuclide

d. Ultrabright light

a. Conventional mammography x-ray tube

Where should the image receptor be placed for the craniocaudal projection?

a. At the level of the inframammary fold

b. At the level of the sternal angle

c. At the level of the axilla

d. At the level of the xiphoid process

a. At the level of the inframammary fold

Which of the following breast tissues is least dense?

a. Glandular

b. Fibrous

c. Adipose

d. Connective

c. Adipose

Which of the following is most effective in demonstrating a breast with an implant?

a. ACR technique

b. Mayer method

c. Eklund method

d. Sonography

c. Eklund method

Which of the following projections best demonstrates the axillary tissue of the breast and a portion of the pectoral muscle?

a. Craniocaudal

b. Exaggerated craniocaudal

c. Mediolateral

d. Mediolateral oblique

b. Exaggerated craniocaudal

Which one of the following imaging modalities is best for detecting silicone leakage from an intracapsular rupture of a breast implant?

a. MRI

b. PET

c. Nuclear medicine

d. Ultrasound

a. MRI

Which patient position is preferred for most mammogram projections?

a. Supine

b. Standing

c. Prone

d. Decubitus

b. Standing

Which soft tissue structure must be in profile for the craniocaudal and mediolateral oblique projections?

a. Pectoral muscle

b. Nipple

c. Glandular tissue

d. Tail of the breast

b. Nipple

Why can AEC not be used for mammography of a breast with an implant?

a. The image will be overexposed.

b. The image will be underexposed.

c. This statement is false; AEC should be used for all studies including implants.

d. AEC provides greater patient dose as compared with manual techniques.

a. The image will be overexposed.

Another term for Cooper's ligament is the suspensory ligament.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

Breathing must be suspended for projections of the breast.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

Compression of the breast will reduce geometric unsharpness (distortion) of structures within the breast.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

Compression should not be used on a breast with an implant.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

b. False

Digital mammography in all likelihood will become the method of choice for breast cancer screening examinations because of its postprocessing capability and other advantages.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

Digital mammography produces better contrast resolution over analog imaging.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

Grids are being used for most mammographic units.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

In most breasts, the craniocaudal diameter is greater than the mediolateral diameter.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

b. False

The American College of Radiology (ACS) recommends that women older than age 40 should have a screening mammogram.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

The amount of adipose tissue from one female breast to another is fairly consistent.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

b. False

The fatty breast will usually require a reduction in exposure factors as compared with the fibroglandular breast.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

During a sonographic procedure, gel is applied to the skin to prevent loss of signal between transducer and skin, which would result in poor images.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

Higher-frequency transducers allow a sharper image for superficial structures such as breast tissue.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

Most PET tracers have a half-life of:

a. 24 hours.

b. 5 to 10 minutes.

c. 120 seconds to 110 minutes.

d. 1 to 10 seconds.

c. 120 seconds to 110 minutes.

PET is an acronym for positron:

a. energy targeting.

b. energy tomography.

c. emission technique.

d. emission tomography.

d. emission tomography.

Positron emission tomography (PET) detects breast cancer by measuring the increased metabolism of ____ by cancerous cells.

a. oxygen

b. sugar

c. carbon

d. phosphates

b. sugar

Regions of metastatic disease in the body have a(n) ____ uptake of 18F-FDG.

a. decreased

b. increased

b. increased

The process of combining PET and CT data sets into a hybrid image is the definition for:

a. co-registration.

b. selective filtration.

c. back projection.

d. Fourier transformation.

a. co-registration.

What type of radionuclide tracer is most commonly used with PET studies of the breast?

a. 18F-FDG

b. Technetium-99m-sestamibi

c. None of the above

d. Sulfur colloid

a. 18F-FDG

Which one of the following PET tracer compounds is used to measure glucose metabolism within tissues?

a. 11C-methionine

b. 15O-water

c. 18F-FDG

d. 13N-ammonia

c. 18F-FDG

Which PET perfusion tracer is given to determine whether certain areas of the heart are receiving sufficient blood flow (perfusion)?

a. 11C-methionine

b. 82Rbn chloride

c. 13N-ammonia

d. Both B and C

d. Both B and C

Sentinel node studies are performed for the detection of a melanoma.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

A group of radioactive drugs used in the diagnosis and treatment of disease is the definition for:

a. gamma emitters.

b. photon-emissive materials.

c. radionuclide.

d. radiopharmaceutical.

d. radiopharmaceutical.

Ionizing radiation with characteristics of an electron but emitted from the nucleus of a radioactive atom is identified as a(n):

a. alpha particle.

b. beta particle.

c. gamma ray.

d. positron.

b. beta particle.

Often, the gamma camera in nuclear medicine systems is coupled with ____ to provide both an anatomic and functional study of the body.

a. SPECT

b. functional MRI

c. CT

d. sonography

c. CT

One of the most common radioactive materials used in nuclear medicine procedures is:

a. technetium 99m.

b. xenon.

c. iodine 131

d. thallium.

a. technetium 99m.

Radiopharmaceuticals are introduced into the body:

a. intravenously.

b. via ingestion.

c. by all of the above.

d. via inhalation.

c. by all of the above.

Technetium 99m has a physical half-life of approximately:

a. 120 to 150 minutes.

b. 6 hours.

c. 15 to 20 minutes.

d. 12 hours.

b. 6 hours.

What is the name of the device required to produce positron-emitting elements?

a. Linear accelerator

b. Particle accelerator

c. Cyclotron

d. Positron generator

c. Cyclotron

Which member of the nuclear medicine health team administers the radionuclide to the patient?

a. Radiation safety officer (RSO)

b. Health physicist

c. Nuclear medicine physician

d. Nuclear medicine technologist

d. Nuclear medicine technologist

Which member of the nuclear medicine health team is responsible for calibration and maintenance of imaging equipment?

a. Nuclear medicine physician

b. Nuclear medicine technologist

c. Health physicist

d. Radiation safety officer (RSO)

c. Health physicist

Which member of the nuclear medicine health team performs statistical analysis of examination data?

a. Radiation safety officer (RSO)

b. Nuclear medicine physician

c. Nuclear medicine technologist

d. Health physicist

c. Nuclear medicine technologist

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is used for thyroid uptake studies?

a. Thallium

b. Technetium 99-m

c. Sodium iodide 123I

d. Xenon 133

c. Sodium iodide 123I

A nuclear medicine bone scan that displays a "hot spot" is indicative of fracture or metastasis.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

Nuclear medicine can evaluate the patient for hyperthyroidism.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

Nuclear medicine can provide a functional study of the heart under stress.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

a. True

Nuclear medicine is an excellent imaging modality to detect pulmonary emboli.

Select one:

a. True

b. False

b. False

An example of a nonvascular interventional procedure is:

a. nephrostomy.

b. stent placement.

c. embolization of a vessel.

d. thrombolysis.

a. nephrostomy.

How long can a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line remain in the patient safely (if properly maintained)?

a. 30 days

b. 14 months

c. 1 week

d. 6 months

d. 6 months

On the right side of the body, the subclavian artery is a branch of the:

a. brachiocephalic artery.

b. aortic arch.

c. right common carotid artery.

d. right vertebral artery.

a. brachiocephalic artery.

The contrast medium of choice for angiography is:

a. ionic iodinated.

b. nonionic water-soluble iodinated.

c. tri-iodinated.

d. oil-based iodinated.

b. nonionic water-soluble iodinated.

The distal portion of the abdominal aorta will bifurcate into the:

a. femoral arteries.

b. renal arteries.

c. inferior mesenteric arteries.

d. common iliac arteries.

d. common iliac arteries.

What other contrast media can be given during angiography if the patient is highly allergic to iodinated contrast media?

a. CO2

b. Helium

c. Nitrogen

d. Air

a. CO2

Which element of blood promotes blood clotting?

a. Erythrocytes

b. Plasma

c. Platelets

d. Leukocytes

c. Platelets

Which heart valve is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle?

a. Pulmonary valve

b. Aortic valve

c. Mitral valve

d. Tricuspid valve

c. Mitral valve

Which is the longest vein in the body?

a. Inferior vena cava

b. Great saphenous vein

c. Femoral vein

d. Popliteal vein

b. Great saphenous vein

Which of the following arteries is found at the level of the knee?

a. Popliteal

b. Deep femoral

c. Anterior

d. Dorsalis pedis

a. Popliteal

Which of the following arteries is NOT found in the lower limb?

a. Dorsalis pedis

b. Deep palmar

c. Deep femoral

d. Popliteal

b. Deep palmar

Which of the following vessels is NOT a direct branch of the aortic arch?

a. Left subclavian artery

b. Left common carotid artery

c. Right common carotid artery

d. Brachiocephalic artery

c. Right common carotid artery