testing modalities, neutralization, donor screening, donor deferrals, blood collection, infectious screening, labels, storage, shelf life, QC, HDFN, RhIG, immune hemolytic anemias, pretransfusion testing, crossmatch, transfusion reactions, and emergency release.

Which blood bank testing modality is described as low technology with minimal equipment?

Tube testing

Which testing modality requires specialized equipment and is adaptable to automation with less subjective endpoints, using adherence across a well?

Solid-phase

Which testing modality is common in blood banks, uses gel media, and does not require saline washing or check cells?

Gel column

In tube testing, compatibility testing must be completed within how many hours of sample age according to your reviewer?

72 hours

In solid-phase red cell adherence, what does a strong positive 4+ reaction look like?

Diffuse monolayer

In solid-phase testing, what does a negative reaction look like?

Central button

In solid-phase testing, results are stable for up to how many days?

2 days

In gel column technology, what does a strong positive 4+ reaction look like?

Top layer

In gel column technology, what does a negative reaction look like?

Bottom button

In gel column technology, results are stable for up to how many days?

3 days

In gel column technology, false-negative reactions are mainly due to what type of specimen problem?

Lipemic samples

What immunologic method is useful in antibody identification by blocking antibody reactivity with soluble antigen?

Neutralization

Soluble blood group antigens may be found in saliva, urine, plasma, and what other body fluid listed in your reviewer?

Body fluids

What source is used for P1 substance in neutralization studies?

Hydatid fluid

What bird-derived source may also provide P1 substance for neutralization?

Pigeon eggs

What source is used for Lewis substance when neutralizing Leb?

Secretor saliva

If only Lea is being detected, saliva from what secretor status is acceptable?

Nonsecretor

What source is used for Sda substance in neutralization studies?

Urine

What animal urine is also listed as a source of Sda substance?

Guinea pig

What source is used for Chido-Rodgers substance in neutralization studies?

Plasma

What source is used for I substance in neutralization studies?

Human milk

What source is used for H substance in neutralization studies?

Secretor saliva

What is the required general appearance of an acceptable donor?

Good health

What is the maximum donor temperature allowed during screening?

37.5°C

What is the acceptable systolic blood pressure range for donor screening?

90–180 mmHg

What is the acceptable diastolic blood pressure range for donor screening?

50–100 mmHg

What is the acceptable donor pulse range during screening?

50–100 BPM

What is the minimum acceptable donor weight according to your reviewer?

50 kg

What is the minimum hemoglobin for male donors?

13.0 g/dL

What is the minimum hemoglobin for female donors?

12.5 g/dL

What is the minimum hematocrit for male donors?

39%

What is the minimum hematocrit for female donors?

38%

What must be true of the venipuncture site of a donor?

No lesions

In autologous donation, is rigid donor criteria required?

Not required

What is required before an autologous donation can be collected?

Physician order

What is the minimum hemoglobin for autologous donors?

11 g/dL

What is the minimum hematocrit for autologous donors according to your reviewer?

33%

Autologous blood collection must be completed more than how many hours before surgery?

72 hours

What infection-related condition must be absent in autologous donors?

Bacteremia risk

If the collecting and transfusing facilities are different, what testing is required for autologous units?

Infectious screening

What typing must be confirmed by the transfusing facility for each autologous unit?

ABO Rh

Directed or designated donors are mainly beneficial when what type of blood is required?

Rare antigen-negative

Directed donors must meet the same eligibility requirements as what kind of donor?

Allogeneic donor

Directed donor units must undergo all standard donor testing including what major category?

Infectious screening

For infrequent plasmapheresis donations, the interval is once every how many weeks?

4 weeks

Frequent plasmapheresis donations must not exceed how many donations per week?

2 donations

Frequent plasmapheresis donations must be at least how many days apart?

2 days

What is the minimum weight for plasmapheresis donors?

50 kg

What minimum serum protein is required for plasmapheresis donors?

6 g/dL

For single plateletpheresis, what is the minimum donation interval?

2 days

Single plateletpheresis must not exceed how many donations per week?

2 donations

Double and triple plateletpheresis require what minimum donation interval?

7 days

Plateletpheresis cannot exceed how many donations in 12 months?

24 donations

What minimum platelet count is required for plateletpheresis donors?

150,000/µL

Two-unit red cell pheresis requires what minimum deferral from all donations?

16 weeks

Height, weight, hemoglobin, and hematocrit requirements for two-unit red cell pheresis are defined by whom?

Manufacturer

Proscar and Propecia require what donor deferral period after the last dose?

1 month

Accutane and similar drugs require what donor deferral period after the last dose?

1 month

Avodart and Jalyn require what donor deferral period after the last dose?

6 months

Soriatane requires what donor deferral period after the last dose?

3 years

Tegison causes what type of donor deferral?

Permanent

Erivedge requires what donor deferral period after the last dose?

24 months

Sonidegib requires what donor deferral period after the last dose?

24 months

Bovine insulin manufactured in the UK causes what donor deferral status?

Indefinite

Aspirin and Feldene require what donor deferral period?

2 days

Effient and Brilinta require what donor deferral period?

7 days

Plavix, Ticlid, Zontivity, and Clopidogrel require what donor deferral period after the last dose?

14 days

Warfarin and heparin require what donor deferral period?

7 days

Dabigatran and rivaroxaban require what donor deferral period after the last dose?

2 days

Hepatitis B immune globulin requires what donor deferral period?

12 months

Measles, mumps, polio, typhoid, and yellow fever vaccines require what donor deferral period?

2 weeks

German measles and chickenpox/shingles vaccines require what donor deferral period?

4 weeks

Living longer than 5 years in a malaria-endemic country requires what donor deferral period after departure?

3 years

Traveling to an area where malaria is endemic requires what donor deferral period after departure?

12 months

A confirmed positive test for HBsAg causes what donor deferral status?

Permanent

Repeat reactive anti-HBc more than once causes what donor deferral status?

Indefinite

Positive HBV NAT causes what donor deferral status?

Indefinite

Present or past evidence of HIV, HCV, HTLV, or T. cruzi infection causes what donor deferral status?

Indefinite

History of babesiosis causes what donor deferral status?

Indefinite

Parenteral drug use causes what donor deferral status?

Indefinite

Use of needles for nonprescription drugs causes what donor deferral status?

Indefinite

Mucous membrane exposure to blood causes what donor deferral period?

12 months

Nonsterile skin penetration with contaminated instruments causes what donor deferral period?

12 months

Sexual contact or living with someone who has acute hepatitis B or symptomatic hepatitis C causes what donor deferral period?

12 months

Sexual contact with an individual with HIV infection or high HIV risk causes what donor deferral period?

12 months

Incarceration for 72 hours or more consecutively causes what donor deferral period?

12 months

Syphilis or gonorrhea causes what donor deferral period?

12 months

Diagnosis of malaria causes what donor deferral period after becoming symptomatic?

3 years

Manual whole blood collection can produce whole blood, RBCs, FFP/PF24, platelets, and what other component?

Cryoprecipitate

Automated or apheresis collection can produce platelets, RBCs, granulocytes, and what plasma components?

FFP PF24

Blood must be collected into what kind of system?

Closed system

What skin preparation agents are listed for blood collection?

Iodine alcohol

What needle gauge is used for blood collection according to your reviewer?

16 gauge

What needle length is used for blood collection according to your reviewer?

1–1.5 inches

Diversion pouches divert the first how many milliliters of blood?

30–45 mL

Diversion pouches help keep what from entering the final blood components?

Skin plug

Diversion pouches are especially important for preparation of what component because of storage temperature concerns?

Platelets

What is the maximum whole blood collection volume per kilogram of donor weight, including samples?

10.5 mL/kg

If a donor weighs less than 110 lb, what must be reduced proportionately during collection?

Blood anticoagulant

If only 390 mL is collected, packed RBCs can still be prepared but what products cannot be prepared?

Plasma products