Dog Cat exam 2

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204 Terms

1
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common abdominal hernias:

  • umbilical

  • inguinal

  • diaphragmatic

  • peritoneal-pericardial

  • scrotal

  • perineal

  • hiatal

2
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strangulation

entrapment of viscera and obstruction of blood supply

3
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incarceration

contents are irreducible and contraction of scar tissue at hernia ring may result in delayed signs ± strangulation

4
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simple hernia treatment:

  • may spontaneously close

  • surgery

5
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complicated hernia

hernia with GI signs

6
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complicated hernia treatment:

  • full exlap

  • check intestinal viability

7
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inguinal hernia treatment:

  • surgery with ventral midline incision

8
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diaphragmatic hernia is usually caused by _____

trauma

9
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radial tear

tear of caval foramen of diaphragm

10
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circumferential tear

tear of pars sternalis of diaphragm

11
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peritoneo-pericardial diaphragmatic hernia

communication between abdomen and pericardium

12
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cells of stratum corneum are suspended in lipids comprised of…

nonpolar lipids, ceramides, free fatty acids, and cholesterol

13
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lamellar bodies are synthesized in…

stratum spinosum

14
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lamellar bodies secrete and store…

lipids

15
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desmosomes

major cell adhesion molecule

16
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3 desmosome families:

  • cadherins

  • plakins

  • armadillo proteins

17
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hemidesmosomes

attach epidermis to dermis

18
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dogs and cats have a _________ hair follicle arrangement

compound

19
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hair cluster consists of…

2-5 guard hairs surrounded by smaller secondary hairs

20
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anagen phase

hair growth

21
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catagen phase

transitional period

22
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telogen phase

resting period

23
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what sweat glands are not found on footpads or nasal planum?

  • sebaceous gland

  • epitrichial sweat glands

24
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what sweat glands are found on the footpads?

atrichial

25
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SCRATCH acronym for pruritic animal:

  • S- severity

  • C- contagion

  • R- response to previous therapy

  • A- affected areas

  • T- timeline

  • C- conditions

  • H- hereditary

26
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what are the common distributions of lesions and pruritus associated with atopic dermatitis and food allergy?

  • paws

  • inguinal region

  • axillary region

  • ears

  • muzzle

27
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what are the common distributions of lesions and pruritus associated with sarcoptic mange?

  • ears

  • hocks

  • elbows

  • abdominal region

28
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what are the common distributions of lesions and pruritus associated with demodectic mange?

  • paws

  • multifocal areas around body

29
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what are the common distributions of lesions and pruritus associated with flea bite hypersensitivity?

  • neck

  • dorsum

  • inguinal region

30
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what are the common distributions of lesions and pruritus associated with malassezia dermatitis?

  • paws

  • mouth

  • axillary region

  • perineum

  • eyes

31
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pruritus onset at < 6 months old likely etiology is:

  • parasitic

  • food

32
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pruritus onset at 6 months-3 years old likely etiology is:

  • parasitic

  • food

  • environment

33
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pruritus onset at >5 years old likely etiology is:

  • parasitic

  • food

  • infectious

34
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causes of non or variable pruritus onset in young dog:

  • infections

  • parasites

  • fungal

  • juvenile cellulitis in dogs

  • hereditary scaling disease

  • hereditary follicular disease

  • hereditary subepidermal blistering diseases

35
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causes of non pruritic onset in middle aged dog:

  • endocrine diseases

  • immune mediated diseases

36
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causes of non pruritic onset older dog:

  • immune mediated diseases

  • metabolic disease

  • endocrine diseases

  • neoplasia

37
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macule

well circumscribed non-palpable area od color change less than 1 cm diameter

38
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patch

well circumscribed nonpalpable area of color change more than 1 cm

39
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plaque

solid elevation more than 1 cm in diameter

40
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diascopy

press clear slide against erythematous area of skin to see if it blanches with pressure

41
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papule

solid elevation less than 1 cm in diameter

42
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pustule

small, well circumscribed area within the epidermis that can be filled with neutrophils or eosinophils

43
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vesicle

small area within or below epidermis less than 1 cm diameter and filled with clear fluid

44
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bulla

blister > 1 cm diameter

45
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nodule

solid elevation more than 1 cm in diameter that extends into deeper tissue layers

46
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tumor

large mass in skin or SQ

47
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alopecia

partial to complete hair loss

48
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scale

accumulation of loose fragments consisting of horny layer of skin

49
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follicular cast

accumulation of keratin on hair shaft

50
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fronds

multiple hairs together surrounded by casts in paintbrush appearance

51
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crust

adherence of dried exudate containing serum, blood, pus, or scales

52
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comedone

dilated hair follicle filled with corneocytes and sebaceous material

53
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epidermal collarette

shallow scaly ring

54
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erosion

shallow epidermal defect

55
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excoriation

erosion secondary to self trauma

56
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ulcer

full thickness loss of epidermis revealing underlying dermis

57
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lichenification

thickening of skin resulting in exaggerated skin surface appearance

58
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callus

thickened skin associated with pressure points

59
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fissure

linear cleavage of epidermis

60
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severe cases of otitis should be pretreated with…

corticosteroids

61
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causes of otitis externa:

knowt flashcard image
62
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moist brown ear discharge =

yeast or staph

63
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coffee ground ear discharge =

mites

64
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creamy yellow ear discharge =

gram - organisms

65
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waxy, greasy ear discharge =

  • hypersensitivity

  • glandular disease

  • disorders of keratinization

66
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____% of ear tumors in cats are malignant

87.5

67
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what is the most common ear tumor in cat?

ceruminous gland adenocarcinoma

68
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____% of ear tumors in dogs are malignant

60%

69
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sarcoptes signs:

  • highly contagious

  • pruritus (not always seen)

70
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cheyletiella spp diagnosis:

skin scrape or tape prep

71
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lice signs:

  • mild to moderate pruritus

  • alopecia

  • scales

  • crust

72
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demodex canis signs:

  • papulopustular dermatitis

  • alopecic macules to patches

  • erythematous dermatitis

  • hyperpigmented patches/comedones

  • scaling dermatosis

  • pododemodicosis

73
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demodex injai signs:

  • seborrheic dermatitis

  • common on dorsal lumbar region

74
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short bodied demodex of dog

morphological variant of d canis that causes it to be 50% the length of d canis

75
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demodex cati signs:

  • variably pruritic ptachy, lopecia, and crusting

  • periocular, head, neck, ears

76
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demodex gatoi signs:

  • erythema, excoriations, scaling, and crusting

  • head, neck, elbows, flanks, ventrum, rear legs

77
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demodex gatoi diagnosis:

  • superficial skin scrape

  • acetate tape

  • SAF fecal fixation and centrifugation

78
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demodex gatoi and cati treatment:

  • lime sulfur

  • ELDU: fluralaner, selamectin

79
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localized demodicosis treatment:

  • reduce stress

  • benzoyl peroxide shampoo

80
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generalized demodicosis

more than 5 affected regions or more than 50% involvement in single region or pododemodicosis

81
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generalized demodicosis is treated for __ months after negative scrape

2

82
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what is treatment of choice for generalized demodicosis

isoxazolines (fluralaner/sarolaner/lotilaner/alfoxolaner)

83
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surface pyoderma signs:

  • erythema

  • superficial exudation and erosions in absence of pustules and collarettes

84
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bacterial overgrowth syndrome (BOG) signs:

  • erythema

  • lichenification

  • hyperpigmentation

  • malodorous greasy seborrhea

  • excoriation

  • alopecia

85
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2/3 of BOG is caused by ________

allergy

86
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what is the most common form of skin infection in dog?

superficial bacterial folliculitis

87
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superficial bacterial folliculitis signs:

  • erythematous papules

  • pustules

  • epidermal collarettes

  • crusts

  • alopecia

88
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67% of patients with recurrent pyoderma had _______________ as underlying etiology

allergic dermatitis

89
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when is bacterial culture needed for pyoderma?

  1. when long term treatment will be needed

  2. rods on cytology

  3. <50% reduction in extent of lesions after 2 weeks of systemic therapy\

  4. new lesions are occurring

  5. poorly responsive cases

  6. history of drug resistance

  7. history of recurrent infections

90
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the most common methicillin resistant staphylococcus species are…

  • staphylococcus pseudintermedius

  • staphylococcus schleiferi

91
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methicillin resistant staphylococcus have what gene?

mecA

92
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how can mecA be detected?

  • mecA PCR

  • penicillin binding protein 2a

93
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what coagulase negative staphylococcus is clinically important?

staphylococcus schleiferi

94
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staphylococcus coagulans is coagulase +/-

-

95
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what fungal diseases affect skin, hair, claws?

  • dermatophytosis

  • malassezia dermatitis

  • candidiasis

96
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what fungal diseases affect skin and subcutis?

  • sporotrichosis

  • dermatophytic pseudomycetoma

  • eumycotic mycetoma

  • phaeohyphomycosis

  • pythiosis

  • lagenidiosis

  • zygomycosis

97
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what fungal diseases affect internal organs with hematogenous spread to skin?

  • cryptococcosis

  • blastomycosis

  • coccidiomycosis

  • histoplasmosis

98
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common causes of dermatophytosis:

  • microsporum canis

  • microsporum gypseum

  • trichophyton mentagrophytes complex

99
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dermatophytosis pathogenesis:

  • arthrospores infective and adhere strongly to keratin

  • trauma/mechanical disruption of skin facilitates penetration

  • fungal hyphae invade hair follicle of anagen hairs and migrate downwards

  • fungal metabolic by-products incite an inflammatory reaction, including folliculitis which may lead to furunculosis (rupture of hair follicle)

  • type IV hypersensitivity

100
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dermatophytosis signs in dogs:

  • classic annular lesion

  • patchy alopecia, erythema, scale, crust

  • folliculitis and furunculosis

  • kerion

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