CSU BMS 300 Final

Which of the following bonds are responsible for the dipole moment of a water molecule?

a. hydrogen bonds

b. ionic bonds

c. polar bonds

d. covalent bonds

d. covalent bonds

There are currently clinical trials researching the efficacy of mRNA vaccines to protect against HIV, Zika, rabies, and Ebola viruses. Upon injection of an mRNA vaccine, mRNA would be read:

a. 3'-5' by the large ribosomal subunit

b. 5'-3' by the large ribosomal subunit

c. 3'-5' by the small ribosomal subunit

d. 5'-3' by the small ribosomal subunit

d. 5'-3' by the small ribosomal subunit

Which of the following may contain a nuclear localization factor?

a. DNA, RNA, and histone proteins

b. DNA and RNA

c. RNA and polymerase proteins

d. DNA and secreted proteins

c. RNA and polymerase proteins

Which of the following ions has a higher intracellular concentration? a. Na+

b. Ca2+

c. Cl-

d. K+

d. K+

Which polymerase is responsible for the production of mRNA?

a. RNA polymerase I

b. RNA polymerase II

c. RNA polymerase III

d. All of the above

b. RNA polymerase II

Which of the following proteins would have a signal peptide?

a. Na+/K+ ATPases

b. clathrin proteins

c. spliceosomes

d. myosin motor proteins

a. Na+/K+ ATPases

The DNA in mitochondria would be expected to be:

a. bound to histones

b. contained in a nucleus

c. organized in chromosomes

d. circular

d. circular

Between the time pre-mRNA is generated and the time when introns are removed, a type of RNA called SnoRNA adds a methyl group to some bases on the pre-mRNA. Where would you expect SnoRNA to function?

a. ribosome

b. nucleus

c. rough endoplasmic reticulum

d. cytoplasm

b. nucleus

The R groups of an integral protein that interact with extracellular fluid are most likely:

a. hydrophilic

b. hydrophobic

c. amphipathic

d. phospholipids

a. hydrophilic

Embryonic germ cells are transcriptionally dormant. You would expect these cells to have:

a. high levels of spliceosomes

b. DNA primarily in euchromatin form

c. DNA primarily in heterochromatin form

d. high levels ATP synthesis

c. DNA primarily in heterochromatin form

AMPA receptors bind the neurotransmitter glutamate in the extracellular space. Binding opens the AMPA receptor and permits the movement of ions across the plasma membrane. AMPA receptors are examples of:

a. voltage-gated channels

b. ligand-gated channels

c. mechanically-gated channels

d. non-gated channels

b. ligand-gated channels

Capsaicin is known as the "spicy molecule." After eating spicy food, you might reach for a glass of water to wash away the spice, but the water does nothing to curb the burning sensation in your mouth. You can assume that capsaicin is __________.

a. amphipathic

b. hydrophilic

c. hydrophobic

d. polar

c. hydrophobic

Keratin, which is found in keratinocytes, is an example of a(n):

a. ATPase

b. actin filament

c. intermediate filament

d. secrete protein

c. intermediate filament

Disruption of which of the following cellular processes could potentially lead to disease?

a. post-translational modifications

b. synthesis of transmembrane channels

c. protein misfolding

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Sprinting for a minute would most likely NOT use which of the following substrates to make ATP?

a. creatine phosphate

b. glucose

c. fats

d. glycogen

c. fats

Which of the following is NOT the result of hydrogen bonding?

a. the bonds that form a beta pleated sheet

b. the bonds between glycerol and fatty acid chains

c. the bonds formed between codons and anticodons

d. the bonds between two strands of DNA

b. the bonds between glycerol and fatty acid chains

The strand created during DNA replication that results in Okazaki fragments Is called the:

a. conserved strand

b. leading strand

c. lagging strand

d. looping strand

c. lagging strand

Two solutions are separated by a membrane containing only aquaporin channels. The solution in the left compartment contains 50 millimolar NaCl, which dissociates completely. The solution in the right compartment contains 100 millimolar sucrose, which does not dissociate. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. water will not experience a net flow because the osmotic forces are balanced

b. water will flow from left to right because the osmotic concentration of NaCl is higher

c. water will flow from right to left because the osmotic concentration of sucrose is higher

d. water will flow from left to right because the osmotic concentration of NaCl is lower

a. water will not experience a net flow because the osmotic forces are balanced

Transcription factors bind to _____ in order to promote _____:

a. DNA, DNA replication

b. RNA, RNA synthesis

c. DNA, RNA synthesis

d. RNA, protein synthesis

c. DNA, RNA synthesis

A person with an RQ value of 0.8 is most likely:

a. resting

b. using glucose as the substrate to make ATP

c. using fats as the substrate to make ATP

d. exercising vigorously

a. resting

In eukaryotic cells, enzymes that form phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides function in the:

a. nucleus

b. endoplasmic reticulum

c. cytosol

d. more than one answer is correct

a. nucleus

For the bases CAT in DNA, the anticodon would be:

a. CAT

b. GTA

c. UAC

d. CAU

d. CAU

Phosphorylation of protein channels increasing or decreasing permeability through that channel is an example of a:

a. co-transcriptional modification

b. post-transcriptional modification

c. co-translational modification

d. post-translational modification

d. post-translational modification

A toxin that blocks the ability of dynein to cleave ATP to ADP + Pi would disrupt the:

a. anterograde transport of vesicles on microtubules

b. retrograde transport of vesicles on microtubules

c. anterograde transport of vesicles on f-actin

d. retrograde transport of vesicles on f-actin

b. retrograde transport of vesicles on microtubules

Creatine phosphate:

a. is only formed during strenuous exercise

b. is produced by the process of anaerobic respiration

c. cannot transfer its phosphate group to ADP

d. acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue

d. acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue

SNARE complexes allow for exocytosis of vesicles. Which of the following proteins would be synthesized on a free ribosome?

a. SNAP-25

b. VAMP

c. syntaxin

d. synaptotagmin

a. SNAP-25

Tunicamycin is an antibiotic that blocks the transfer of sugars onto amino acids during glycosylation. You would expect this antibiotic to have its effects in the:

a. peroxisome

b. Golgi apparatus

c. lysosome

d. nucleus

b. Golgi apparatus

Erythrocytes (red blood cells) are covered in heavily glycosylated proteins that become oxidized over time. Significant oxidation of these glycoproteins is a sign the erythrocyte is worn out. Macrophages in the spleen inspect the glycoproteins and will internalize the old erythrocytes by a process of:

a. apoptosis

b. exocytosis

c. endocytosis

d. pinocytosis

c. endocytosis

During DNA replication, helicase is needed to unwind the double helix and pull apart the two strands of DNA. Helicase functions by breaking the:

a. hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous bases

b. phosphodiester bonds between 5-carbon sugars

c. hydrogen bonds between nucleosides

d. covalent bonds between nitrogenous bases

a. hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous bases

Which of the following is NOT a typical component of biological membranes in eukaryotic cells?

a. proteins that span the lipid bilayer

b. amphipathic molecules

c. triglycerides

d. phospholipids

c. triglycerides

The Na+/H+ exchanger uses the energy of sodium moving down its gradient to push hydrogen against its concentration gradient. Which of the following is NOT true? The Na+/H+ exchanger:

a. requires ATP to function

b. is a counter-transporter

c. is a secondary active transporter has at least four transmembrane domains

a. requires ATP to function

Aquaporins are proteins that span the phospholipid bilayer of cells. What protein structure is MOST LIKELY associated with the transmembrane portion of the aquaporin channels?

a. a sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bonds

b. an amino acid chain with hydrogen bonds formed between the peptide bonds

c. multiple protein subunits joined together by non-covalent forces

d. an amino acid chain with hydrogen bonds between R groups

b. an amino acid chain with hydrogen bonds formed between the peptide bonds

A deoxyribonucleoside contains all of the following EXCEPT a:

a. nitrogenous base

b. deoxyribose sugar

c. phosphate group

d. none of the above - they are all part of a deoxyribonucleoside

c. phosphate group

A patient presents at the ER with a slow heart rate, restlessness, and a bluish skin tone. The ER doctor diagnoses hypoxia, which is the lack of oxygen within the tissues, and places the patient on supplemental oxygen. Thinking about glycolysis, what would be the products of the catabolism of a glucose molecule in a patient with hypoxia?

a. two molecules of lactate

b. two molecules of acetyl-CoA

c. four molecules of lactate

d. four molecules of acetyl-CoA

a. two molecules of lactate

Pemphigus is an autoimmune blistering skin disease in which keratinocytes in the epidermis lose cell-to-cell adhesion. Which transmembrane proteins are likely targeted by antibodies to cause this condition?

a. integrins

b. connexins

c. claudins & occludins

d. cadherins

d. cadherins

Cardiac myocytes (heart muscle cells) undergo intense mechanical stress when they contract together to pump blood out of the heart. Which type of cell junction would you expect to find helping them withstand this intense mechanical stress?

a. focal adhesions

b. hemidesmosomes

c. desmosomes

d. tight junctions

c. desmosomes

Which type of intercellular junction would have the lowest likelihood of allowing extracellular fluid to pass between cells?

a. gap junctions

b. desmosomes

c. adherens junctions

d. tight junctions

d. tight junctions

Which of the following statements would best explain why cartilage tissue does not regenerate after injury?

a. chondrocytes cannot proliferate

b. chondrocytes cannot secrete collagen

c. chondrocytes cannot secrete elastin

d. cartilage is avascular

d. cartilage is avascular

Some structures in the body are able to return to their original shape after being stretched, bent, or compressed. This ability would be impaired by a loss of function mutation resulting in misfolding of which protein?

a. elastin in the reticular layer of the dermis

b. a secreted protein in elastic cartilage of the ear

c. a protein synthesized by fibrocytes in connective tissue proper

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be found in connective tissue?

a. chondrocytes

b. melanocytes

c. fibrocytes/fibroblasts

d. osteocytes

b. melanocytes

Which type of tissue would you expect to find in the integumentary system?

a. epithelial tissue

b. connective tissue

c. nervous tissue

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

A hypodermic needle will enter the skin and pierce its layers in which order (from first to last):

a. stratum corneum → stratum spinosum → stratum lucidum → stratum granulosum → stratum basale

b. stratum corneum → stratum lucidum → stratum granulosum → stratum spinosum → stratum basale

c. stratum basale → stratum spinosum → stratum lucidum → stratum granulosum → stratum corneum

d. none of the above are correct.

b. stratum corneum → stratum lucidum → stratum granulosum → stratum spinosum → stratum basale

The dermis has two distinct layers. What type of connective tissue makes up the papillary layer of the skin?

a. loose reticular connective tissue

b. dense regular connective tissue

c. dense irregular connective tissue

d. loose areolar connective tissue

d. loose areolar connective tissue

A burn patient presents with charred, dry, and leathery skin with no pain. Based on those signs, identify the severity of their burn and the skin layer(s) affected.

a. first degree burn; epidermis

b. second degree burn; epidermis & upper regions of the dermis

c. third degree burn; epidermis, dermis (all regions), & hypodermis

d. b. or c. are correct

c. third degree burn; epidermis, dermis (all regions), & hypodermis

What might you MOST LIKELY expect to find in the Stratum spinosum?

a. elastin

b. melanin

c. melanocytes

d. more than one answer is correct

b. melanin

Which of the following is NOT a function of the integument?

a. produces exocrine secretions

b. allows for the sensation of pressure

c. helps regulate body temperature

d. aids in respiratory gas exchange

d. aids in respiratory gas exchange

Squamous cell carcinoma, which can appear as rough skin with open sores, may arise from:

a. keratinocytes in the stratum corneum

b. melanocytes in the stratum basale

c. keratinocytes in the stratum basale

d. keratinocytes in the stratum spinosum

d. keratinocytes in the stratum spinosum

Epidermolysis bullosa (EB) is a group of rare diseases that cause the skin to blister easily. Which of the following proteins, if abnormal, would lead to junctional EB?

a. keratin

b. integrins

c. collagen

d. all of the above

b. integrins

Which type of bone is cylindrical in shape and will move appendages (like the arm) when muscles attached to them contract?

a. sesamoid bone

b. long bone

c. Flat bone

d. short bone

b. long bone

Where in the bone would you expect to find blood vessels and nerves?

a. canaliculi

b. only outside of the bone

c. central (Haversian) canal

d. lacunae

c. central (Haversian) canal

Which of the following is secreted by osteoclasts?

a. hydroxyapatite

b. H+ ions

c. collagen

d. RANKL

b. H+ ions

Which of the following can result in reduced bone density?

a. early malnutrition

b. low Vitamin D

c. space flight

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Longitudinal growth occurs in long bones until the epiphyseal (growth) plate closes (hardens into bone tissue). Which of the following is NOT true about the process of longitudinal growth?

a. chondrocytes divide (by mitosis) in the proliferative zone

b. chondrocytes become more rigid (bone-like) in the zone of maturation and hypertrophy

c. chondrocytes die in the zone of calcified matrix

d. bone tissue is added between the epiphysis and diaphysis in the zone of ossification

b. chondrocytes become more rigid (bone-like) in the zone of maturation and hypertrophy

In the process of bone remodeling, RANKL binds to RANK receptors. Which of the following would you NOT expect to result from RANKL binding to RANK receptors?

a. increased bone resorption under the periosteum

b. formation of osteoclasts

c. increased concentration of calcium ions in the blood

d. increased diameter of the medullary cavity

a. increased bone resorption under the periosteum

Hematopoiesis (the production of blood cells) occurs in the________________________.

a. liver

b. medullary cavity

c. red bone marrow

d. yellow bone marrow

c. red bone marrow

When COVID-19 infects the lung epithelium, epithelial cells secrete a molecule called interferon into the extracellular fluid to warn neighboring cells of imminent viral invasion. How would you categorize this mode of intercellular communication?

a. direct communication

b. paracrine communication

c. autocrine communication

d. endocrine communication

b. paracrine communication

Mutations in __________ will disrupt direct communication between cells.

a. integrins

b. connexins

c. claudins

d. clathrins

b. connexins

Choose the appropriate terms to fill in the blanks: ____________ of the mammary glands initiates milk production, and __________ of mammary glands stimulates milk ejection.

a. humoral stimuli, hormonal stimuli

b. hormonal stimuli, hormonal stimuli

c. hormonal stimuli, neural stimuli

d. neural stimuli, hormonal stimuli

c. hormonal stimuli, neural stimuli

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to occur as a result of hydrophilic hormone binding to its receptor?

a. hormone binding to a transmembrane receptor

b. a decrease in intracellular cAMP

c. increase in intercellular calcium concentrations

d. hormone binding to an intracellular receptor

d. hormone binding to an intracellular receptor

Pituitary Gigantism is typically caused by a tumor in the anterior pituitary gland leading to excess hormone secretion from these cells. Which of the following would you expect to see in a patient with this condition?

a. high of GH-IH

b. low levels of GHRH

c. low levels of somatomedins

d. low levels of GH

c. low levels of somatomedins

Some stimulating hormones released from the anterior pituitary can increase the basal metabolic rate. Which of the following is an example of such a hormone?

a. T3 & T4

b. somatostatin

c. TSH

d. TRH

c. TSH

Body odor is a result of bacterial growth in the secretions of the ______ glands in the integumentary system.

a. holocrine

b. merocrine

c. autocrine

d. apocrine

d. apocrine

Calcium homeostasis is tightly regulated by the thyroid and parathyroid glands. The hormone(s) released to decrease calcium levels is/are:

a. calcitonin

b. parathyroid hormone

c. Vitamin D

d. both b. and c. are correct

a. calcitonin

Which of the following would you expect as a result of iodine deficiency?

a. Grave's disease

b. diabetes insipidus

c. Addison's disease

d. myxedema

d. myxedema

Cushing's disease is caused by the excessive hormone secretion from the ___________ .

a. zona fasciculata

b. adrenal medulla

c. zona glomerulosa

d. zona reticularis

a. zona fasciculata

Insulin has a role in both adipose and muscle tissue. Which of the following will happen as a result of insulin binding to receptors in both of these tissues?

a. synthesis of glycogen

b. synthesis of glucose

c. transport of glucose and fatty acids into the cell

d. transport of amino acids into the cell

c. transport of glucose and fatty acids into the cell

Which of the following is the LEAST LIKELY response when you haven't eaten for a few hours and there is a decrease in your blood glucose levels?

a. glycogen is broken down in the liver

b. the adrenal cortex releases flight or fight hormones

c. glucocorticoids act on the muscles to release amino acids

d. stress hormones trigger breakdown of fatty acids in the adipose tissue

b. the adrenal cortex releases flight or fight hormones

Which of the following hormones are synthesized in the pancreas and stimulate synthesis of glycogen and fat in the liver?

a. somatostatin

b. glucagon

c. pancreatic polypeptide

d. insulin

d. insulin

Ca2+ binding to TnC subunit permits the transition of the thin filament from the ___________?

a. closed to open state

b. blocked to closed state

c. open to closed state

d. closed to blocked state

b. blocked to closed state

A mutation to the Ca2+ binding region of calmodulin will MOST LIKELY result in ________________?

a. inactivation of myosin light chain kinase

b. phosphorylation of the regulatory light chain

c. myosin cannot interact with actin

d. none of the above

c. myosin cannot interact with actin

A person with an RQ value of 1.0 is most likely ______________?

a. resting for an hour

b. going for a relaxing walk for an hourc. sprinting for 5 seconds

d. sprinting for over 30 seconds

d. sprinting for over 30 seconds

Isometric contraction occurs when there is a ________________.

a. an increase in the muscle length

b. a decrease in the muscle length

c. no change in muscle length

d. no force produced by the muscle

c. no change in muscle length

In skeletal and cardiac muscles Ca2+ is stored in the _____________________?

a. sarcoplasm

b. sarcolemma

c. sarcoplasmic reticulum

d. SERCA pump

c. sarcoplasmic reticulum

Muscles with predominantly ___________fibers are most resistant to lactic acid buildup.

a. fast

b. slow

c. intermediate

d. all of the above

b. slow

Fine-tuning force generation by triggering action potentials before the muscle can fully relax is an example of _______________?

a. force-length relationship

b. myofilament Ca2+-sensitivity

c. motor unit recruitment

d. twitch summation

d. twitch summation

The cardiac muscle can exhibit the Frank-Starling mechanism where the muscle length determines the force generated. The reason for this is that physiologically the cardiac muscle is present in the ___________ of the force-length relationship:

a. descending limb

b. ascending limb

c. plateau region

d. region of maximal thick and thin filament overlap.

b. ascending limb

Which of the following blood vessels carries oxygenated blood to the heart?

a. pulmonary arteries

b. aorta

c. vena cava

d. pulmonary veins

d. pulmonary veins

The threshold for rapid depolarization in autorhythmic cardiac cells is reached by the activity of the __________.

a. voltage-gated Ca2+ channels

b. voltage-gated K+ channels

c. hyperpolarization Cyclic Nucleotide (HCN) gated Na+ channels

d. b. and c. are correct

c. hyperpolarization Cyclic Nucleotide (HCN) gated Na+ channels

Hypertrophic and dilated cardiomyopathies are MOST DIRECTLY caused by ____________ ?

a. abnormally fast electrical activity of the heart

b. abnormal force generation of the cardiomyocytes

c. low flow of blood through the vessels

d. abnormally slow electrical activity of the heart

b. abnormal force generation of the cardiomyocytes

In the pressure volume loop, the end diastolic volume is MOST DIRECTLY indicative of the __________ .

a. preload

b. afterload

c. inotropy

d. contractility

a. preload

The greatest diameter and the lowest blood pressure would be found in the:

a. vena cava

b. aorta

c. venules

d. arterioles

a. vena cava

The autonomic nervous system can ________ heart rate by causing ______ of the membrane potential of pacemaker cells.

a. increase; greater hyperpolarization

b. decrease; greater hyperpolarization

c. decrease; reduced hyperpolarization

d. none of the above

b. decrease; greater hyperpolarization

Cardiac output can be increased by the following except _______________?

a. increased venous return

b. increased heart rate

c. increased stroke volume

d. increased end-systolic volume

d. increased end-systolic volume

Ventricular filling is complete immediately after the ____

a. T wave

b. QRS complex

c. P wave

d. P to T interval

c. P wave

Which of the following pathological outcomes can occur rapidly and without warning?

a. heart attack

b. cardiac arrest

c. arthrosclerosis

d. coronary artery disease

b. cardiac arrest

19. A characteristic of the plasma membranes of the input regions of neurons is that they:

a. contain voltage-gated channels

b. may be myelinated

c. contain ligand-gated channels

d. conduct action potentials

c. contain ligand-gated channels

A stain designed to specifically label the rough endoplasmic reticulum in neurons in the peripheral nervous system would be seen in:

a. tracts

b. nuclei

c. nerves

d. ganglia

d. ganglia

Assuming the following proteins were synthesized simultaneously in a neuron, which would be the first to arrive at the output region?

a. SNAP-25 SNARE proteins

b. voltage-gated calcium channels

c. tubulin in microtubules

d. myosin motor ATPases

b. voltage-gated calcium channels

For a neuron at rest, the concentration of ______ is higher ______ than ______.

a. Na+, outside the cell, inside the cell

b. K+, outside the cell, inside the cell

c. Ca2+, inside the cell, outside the cell

d. Cl-, inside the cell, outside the cell

a. Na+, outside the cell, inside the cell

In the central nervous system, the cell type that is responsible for maintaining the extracellular concentrations of ions and neurotransmitters is the:

a. oligodendrocytes

b. microglia

c. astrocyte

d. satellite cell

c. astrocyte

The membrane potential seeks the equilibrium potential of the ion:

a. with dominant permeability

b. with more channels open

c. with greater net movement

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Which of the following is true regarding action potentials and graded potentials?

a. action potentials vary with the strength of the stimulus

b. graded potentials are all-or-nothing events

c. actions potentials use frequency coding

d. graded potentials result from opening voltage-gated channels

c. actions potentials use frequency coding

An inhibitory post-synaptic potential (IPSP) occurs when neurotransmitters bind to a receptor to open a(n):

a. voltage-gated Na+ channel

b. ligand-gated Cl- channel

c. ligand-gated Na+ channel

d. voltage-gated K+ channel

b. ligand-gated Cl- channel

Saltatory conduction results from voltage-gated Na+ being:

a. clustered in internodal regions

b. clustered in nodes of Ranvier

c. continuous along the axon

d. confined to input regions

b. clustered in nodes of Ranvier

Fish-hunting snails inject toxins into their victims that block acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction and cause muscle paralysis. The toxin is mostly likely blocking:

a. ligand-gated Na+ channels

b. ligand-gated Cl- channels

c. voltage-gated Ca2+ channels

d. voltage-gated K+ channels

a. ligand-gated Na+ channels

The withdrawal reflex often contains interneurons that stimulate multiple motor units to contract simultaneously, moving the limb away from a painful stimulus. The withdrawal reflex is an example of:

a. a monosynaptic reflex

b. a polysynaptic reflex

c. reciprocal inhibition

d. a tendon tap (stretch) reflex

b. a polysynaptic reflex

Mechanoreceptors in a primary sensory afferent open to allow sodium into the input region in response to:

a. extremely hot or cold temperatures

b. binding of a neurotransmitter to a receptor

c. changes in extracellular chemical concentration

d. physical distortion of a receptor

d. physical distortion of a receptor

Which of the following would increase in activity after your finish this exam and can relax?

a. respiratory rate

b. metabolism

c. heart rate

d. digestion

d. digestion

Damage to the left side of the spinal cord above the level of the legs would cause which of the following clinical symptoms?

a. loss of pain sensation in the left leg

b. loss of proprioception in the right leg

c. loss of fine touch in both legs

d. loss of temperature sensation in right leg

d. loss of temperature sensation in right leg

Type II pneumocytes produce surfactant which lowers the surface tension of the lungs. Where are these cells located?

a. in the alveoli

b. in the pulmonary capillaries

c. in the interstitial spaces of the respiratory membrane

d. in the trachea and other conducting zones

a. in the alveoli