MOD4 (MANOR) BIOPHARM

B

1. In LADMER system, L stands for liberation as the first step which determines the following aspects, except:

a. onset of action

b. type of preparation

c. rate of absorption

d. bioavailability

C

2. The ultimate evaluation of dosage forms or delivery system is in:

a. disintegration time

b. thickness

c. clinical effectiveness

d. taste

D

3. Factor that contributes to patient's difference in drug concentration in the body, except:

a. body weight

b. obesity

c. age

d. climate

A

4. A rate limiting factor in the dissolution of drugs is:

a. disintegration of the tablet

b. thickness

c. content uniformity

d. local effect

A

5. The effect of reduced particle size of a drug is:

a. increased absorption

b. increased disintegration

c. increased hardness

d. all of them

D

6. A cause of patient to patient variability of time course of the drug in the plasma is:

a. disease

b. concomitant drug therapy

c. genetic in origin

d. all of the above

A

7. Dissolution rate tests can be used to predict bioavailability if:

a. dissolved drug remains free in the GIT

b. dissolved drug is decomposed in the GIT

c. drug is hydrolyzed in the GIT

d. all of them

A

8. Elimination half-life of a drug is the time in hours needed to reduce drug concentration to:

a. half of the parent drug

b. one fourth of the initial dose

c. all or taken dose

d. a & b

C

9. Tmax means:

a. time of great solubility of the drug

b. peak height concentration

c. time of peak concentration

d. AUC values

D

10. To generally increase the solubility of a poorly soluble drug in an aqueous medium, the process is:

a. complexation

b. adsorption

c. prepare into a derivative

d. a & c

D

11. The ionization constant of a drug is important in bioavailability since it determines the following, except:

a. its aqueous solubility

b. dissolution rate

c. pH of the medium

d. extent of protein binding

D

12. The difference in bioavailability of a drug product of the same therapeutic agent is due to:

a. difference in formulation ingredients

b. difference in packaging

c. difference in methods of manufacture

d. a & c

B

13. Which of the crystal forms give the best dissolution rate?

a. meta-stable polymorph

b. amorphous

c. stable polymorph

d. a and b

D

14. The termination of action of a drug is determined by:

a. excretion of intact active molecule

b. excretion of active molecule

c. tissue redistribution

d. a & c

D

15. Pharmaceutical equivalents are drug products that contain:

a. identical amounts of active drugs

b. identical amounts of inactive ingredients

c. identical amounts of excipients

d. all of the above

D

16. The purpose of biotransformation reaction is:

a. deactivate the drug

b. preserve the drug from destruction

c. promote elimination of inactive drug

d. a & c

D

17. The advantage of sublingual/buccal administration is:

a. no occurrence of gastrointestinal degradation

b. drug directly in the circulation

c. not pass to the liver

d. a & c

B

18. The integral of the drug level over time from zero to infinity is:

a. biologic half-life

b. area under the curve

c. bioavailability

d. biopharmaceutics

C

19. The rate and extent at which the drug appears in the bloodstream is known as:

a. biopharmaceutics

b. area under the curve

c. bioavailability

d. biologic half-life

D

20. An inactive or much less active substance which is transformed to active drug in the body is:

a. dosage form

b. drug product

c. asp

d. prodrug

C

21. A site in the biophase to which drug molecules can be found is:

a. fluid compartment

b. unit membrane

c. receptor

d. none of the above

C

22. A branch of science which deals with physical and chemical properties of drug substance, the dosage form, and

the biological effectiveness of a drug product upon administration is:

a. pharmacology

b. pharmacokinetics

c. biopharmaceutics

d. pharmacy

B

23. The dose size required maintaining effectiveness or therapeutic concentration according to dosage regimen is:

a. priming dose

b. maintenance dose

c. loading dose

d. any of the above

C

24. The ability of the substance to exist in different crystalline forms is:

a. amphoterism

b. sating in

c. polymorphism

d. precipitation

C

25. Differences in bioavailability are most frequently observed with drugs are administered by which of the ff.

routes?

a. subcutaneous

b. intravenous

c. oral

d. sublingual

D

26. A drug can exert its pharmacologic effect only when it is:

a. protein bound

b. protein unbound

c. free drug

d. b & c

A

27. Which of the following factors delays transit time?

a. increasing viscosity

b. liquid diet

c. water

d. b & c

D

28. The principal site of drug metabolism is:

a. kidney

b. muscle tissue

c. gut wall

d. liver

B

29. The mechanism for drug excretion via the kidney is:

a. facilitated diffusion

b. glomerular filtration

c. pinocystosis

d. ion transport

A

30. The major plasma protein involved in the distribution of weak acids is:

a. albumin

b. glycoprotein

c. glycine

d. gelatin

C

31. For faster absorption, what type of diluent or filler is needed if the drug is hydrophobic?

a. hydrophilic

b. water repellant

c. amphilic

d. b & c

D

32. The route of administration which will be by-pass the GIT degradation and hepatic metabolism is:

a. intravenous injection

b. sublingual

c. buccal

d. b & c

B

33. A branch of science which deals with the changes of drug concentration and its metabolites in the human or

animal body after administration is:

a. bioavailability

b. pharmacokinetics

c. biopharmaceutics

d. a & b

A

34. The first step which determines the onset of action, rate of absorption, availability is:

a. liberation

b. distribution

c. excretion

d. absorption

B

35. Liberation is a process controlled by:

a. age of the patient

b. characteristic of the drug

c. both a & b

d. none of the above

D

36. Which is the following factors affect the dissolution in the lipid membrane of the lipid soluble unionized fluid

compartment:

a. pH

b. pKa

c. lipid/water partition coefficient

d. all of the above

A

37. Those multiple source drug products that contains identical amount o the identical active ingredients in identical

dose forms are called:

a. chemical equivalents

b. biological equivalents

c. therapeutic equivalents

d. pharmaceutical alternates

e. therapeutic alternates

C

38. When considering drug transport, 'a passive transport process' implies that:

a. all of the drug will pass from one compartment to another

b. the process requires energy

c. The net transfer of drug is from an area of high concentration to an area low concentration

d. the net transfer of drug is from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration

C

39. The prerequisites of the binding of a drug to a receptor are as follows, EXCEPT:

a. chemical reactivity

b. electronic distribution

c. absence of functional group

d. none if the above

C

40. The following compounds are absorbed via convective transport EXCEPT:

a. ions of opposite charge of pore lining

b. ionized sulfonamides

c. weak organic acids

d. none of the above

D

41. The following mechanism of absorption required the presence of drug in aqueous solution, EXCEPT:

a. passive diffusion

b. convective transport

c. facilitated transport

d. pinocyctosis

C

42. Reabsorption of the drugs and its metabolite occurs in the

a. kidney

b. intestines

c. both a & b

d. none of the above

B

43. A type of transport whereby drug molecules dissolved in aqueous medium at the absorption site moves along

with the solvent through the pore:

a. active transport

c. ion-pair transport

b. convective transport

d. facilitated transport

C

44. When a substance is half-ionized and half-nonionized at a certain pH, its pKa is:

a. greater than pH

b. less than the pH

c. equal to pH

d. negligible as compared to pH

D

45. The Noyes-Whitney equation determines:

a. particle size measurement

b. actual drug solubility

c. dissolution constant

d. dissolution rate

D

46. Studies of bioavailability are generally not required when:

a. drug is intended solely for IV use

b. the drug is for local therapeutic use

c. the drug is an oral product not required to be absorbed

d. all of the above

D

47. Gastric emptying is slowed down by the following except:

a. a vigorous exercise

b. fatty foods

c. hot meals

d. hunger

D

48. The ratio of the concentration of a drug in two immiscible phases is known as the:

a. concentration ratio

b. miscibility ratio

c. partial miscibility

d. lipid/water partition co-efficient

C

49. The metabolism of drugs generally results in:

a. less acidic cpds.

b. more acidic cpds

c. more polar cpds

d. cpds. Having a higher oil/water partition coefficient

A

50. Drugs that poorly lipid soluble or extensively ionized at the pH of the blood generally

a. penetrate the CNS very slowly and may essentially be eliminated from the body before a significant

concentration in the CNS is reached

b. achieve adequate CNS concentration only if given IV

c. must be metabolized to a more polar form before they can gain

d. access to the CNS

D

51. Which of the following events modify drug absorption?

a. physiological constituent of digestion

b. drug interaction

c. certain disease state

d. all of the above

D

52. The following statements are true EXCEPT:

a. amorphous form is more soluble that of the crystalline form

b. the amorphous from has a higher dissolution rate than the crystalline form

c. the crystalline form requires a higher amount of energy to free a molecule of the drug from it than does

the amorphous form

d. the amorphous form requires a higher amount of energy to free a drug molecule from it than does the

crystalline form

C

53. The displacement of drug from protein binding site causes:

a. decrease in the intensity of pharmacological response

b. decrease in the intensity of side effects

c. toxicity

d. all of the above

B

54. These are addition compounds of drug and organic solvents:

a. hydrates

b. solvates

c. polymorphous

d. none of the above

A

55. The Vd of drug is related to:

a. the amount f drug in the body

b. the volume of the liver

c. the volume of the heart

d. the volume of the small intestine

e. the volume of the large intestine

B

56. The major pathway of excretion

a. via the liver

b. via the kidney

c. via the circulation system

d. via the large intestines

A

57. Which of the following propertied of surfactants tend to increase the rate of dissolution?

a. surface tension lowering effect

b. increased surface tension

c. absence of peptizing action

d. all of the above

B

58. The rate of diffusion of drug across biological membranes is most commonly:

a. independent on the concentration gradient

b. directly proportional to the concentration gradient

c. dependent on the availability of carrier substrate

d. dependent on the route of administration

C

59. In general, various oral dosage forms can be ranked in which of the following expected order of availability

(fastest to slowest)

a. aqueous capsule, tablet, powder, coated tablet, suspension

b. capsule, tablet, coated tablet, powder, suspension, aqueous, solution

c. aqueous solution, suspension, powder, capsule, tablet, coated tablet

d. suspension, aqueous solution, powder, capsule, coated tablet, tablet

C

60. The rectal route of administration may be preferred over the oral route for some drug because:

a. the drug does not have to be absorbed

b. absorption is predictable and complete

c. a portion of the absorbed drug does not pass through the liver before entering the systemic circulation

d. the dissolution process is involved

A

61. Renal clearance depends on:

a. urinary pH

b. glomerural filtration

c. absorption

d. distribution

D

62. Application of clinical pharmacokinetics as to management of the individual patient is the:

a. safety

b. overdosage

c. therapeutic

d. a & c

A

63. The time in hours necessary to reduce the drug concentration in the blood, the plasma, or serum to half its

original concentration after equilibrium is reaced:

a. biological half-life

b. area under the curve

c. bioavailability

d. a & b

A

64. The breakdown of ingested foreign compounds to simpler structures:

a. catabolism

b. anabolism

c. homeostasis

d. none of the above

A

65. If the extent and rate of absorption is similar to the standard drug, it has achieved:

a. bioequivalence of a drug

b. pharmaceutical equivalence

c. pharmaceutical alternative product

d. a &b

A

66. The magnitude of bile production depends on:

a. type of food

b. the amount of bile emptied

c. the enzyme activity

d. all of the above

B

67. Biotransformation of a drug takes place in the liver in the presence of:

a. energy from the body

b. enzymes which act as catalysts

c. substance destroyed in the

d. a & c

C

68. Due to their anatomical structure, the organ that is considered as the most important site of drug absorption is:

a. large intestine

b. stomach

c. small intestine

d. mucous membrane of the mouth

A

69. Biliary excretion principle:

a. through the bile duct into the duodenum

b. major portion of the bile is excreted

c. as metabolite

d. any of the above

D

70. Factor determining the biological activity of the drug:

a. formulation of the dosage form

b. individual

c. dose

d. all of the above

D

71. Factor affecting gastric emptying time of a drug:

a. age of the person

b. time of the day

c. body posture

d. all of them

B

72. The hyphotetical plasma volume in mL of the unmetabolized drug which is cleared in one minute via the kidney:

a. volume of distribution

b. renal clearance

c. total clearance

d. area under the curve

A

73. The process that determines absolute bioavailability are the first pass effect and:

a. absorption

b. liberation

c. distribution

d. metabolism

A

74. Factor affecting difference between loading and maintenance dose:

a. half-life of a drug

b. effectiveness of the dose

c. adverse effect

d. b & c

D

75. A relative bioavailability study is necessary when there is:

a. a change in gelenic of the dru

b. a change in the method of manufacture

c. a change in the means of preservation

d. all of the above

B

76. In organs and tissues that are well perfused:

a. distribution is lower

b. distribution is faster

c. distribution rate is negligible

d. none of the above

D

77. The following pathological state influences the volume of distribution EXCEPT:

a. renal disease

b. hepatic disease

c. cardiac insufficiency

d. vertigo

A

78. The volume of distribution of a drug is:

a. mathematical relationship between the total amount of drug in body and the concentration of drug in

the blood

b. a measure of an individual's blood volume

c. an expression of total body volume

d. a measure of the individual fluid volume

D

79. The biologic half-life of many drugs is often prolonged in new born infants because of:

a. a higher decrease of protein binding

b. microsomal enzyme induction

c. more complete absorption of drugs

d. incompletely developed enzyme system

A

80. Drugs are usually released much more slowly from fat because:

a. fat has relatively limited blood supply

b. drugs are fat bound that plasma bound

c. fat-bound-drugs bind to itself more

d. all of the above

D

81. Which of the following factos increase the rate if gastric emptying:

a. fats

b. increasing viscosity

c.anticholinergic

d. none of the above

D

82. Possible approaches to measure bioavailability:

a. blood level data

b. urinary excretion data

c. clinical data

d. all of the above

D

83. The force of attraction which binds drugs to albumin:

a. Van der Waal's

b. hydrophobic bond

c. hydrogen bond

d. all of the above

A

84. The metabolism and/or the elimination of a drug by gastrointestinal and hepatic drug metabolizing enzyme

which can occur after oral administration of a drug:

a. first pass effect

b. biliary recycling

c. hepatic clearance

d. BUN

B

85. The administration of the same dose of active ingredient in different Galenic forms:

a. always leads to the same therapeutic effect

b. does not necessarily lead to the same therapeutic effect

c. always lead to different therapeutic effect

d. none of the above

A

86. The theory which states that the cell membrane is made up of a bi-lipid layer and fluid protein molecules

interspersed between the 2 layers of lipid:

a. fluid-mosaic

b. Monsanto

c. Davidson

d. nicholson

e. none of the above

D

87. Cumulative urinary excretion is often used in the pharmacokinetic and clinical studies in man and animals to

learn about the disposition of the drug and to determine the following:

a. Ka

b. fraction of drug absorbed

c. % of drug absorbed

d. all of the above

B

88. Is the loss of drug from the central compartment due to transfer into other compartments and/or elimination or

metabolism:

a. dosage regimen

b. disposition

c. depot phase

d. creatinine clearance

e. circadian rhythm

A

89. An entity which can be described by a definite volume and a concentration of drug contained in that volume:

a. compartment

b. serum level

c. receptor

d. bloodstream

B

90. A cell or a cell component where the final interaction between drug and receptor takes place:

a. receptor

b. biophase

c. unit membrane

d. muscle

A

91. Drugs that are absorbed in the GIT are generally:

a. absorbed into the portal circulation and pass through the liver

before entering the general circulation

b. filtered from the bloody by the kidney, then reabsorbed into the

general circulation

c. not affected by the liver enzymes

d. stored in the liver

C

92. The speed of blood perfusion in an organ, usually expressed in mL/100 g organ weight/min.

a. accumulation

b. bioavailability

c. blood flow rate

d. absorption

A

93. Drugs in which the pharmacological action depends directly on the chemical structure of the drug:

a. structure specific drugs

b. structure non-specific drugs

c. drug agonist

d. none of the above

A

94. Phosporous poison reacting with cupric sulfate in the intestines (so as to prevent the absorption of the poison )

is an example of _____antagonism.

a. chemical

b. competitive

c. non-equilibrium

d. none of the above

C

95. The ratio of creatinine excreted in urine to the concentration of creatinine

In plasma:

a. creatinine concentration

b. creatinine excretion

c. creatinine clearance

d. renal clearance

A

96. If drug A is more lipophilic than drug B, then

a. drug A will be better distributed that drug B

b. drug B will be better distributed that drug A

c. drug agonist

d. none of the above

C

97. Drugs of low solubility may be brought into solution by the use of:

a. solvent

b. vehicle

c. surfactants

d. all of the above

D

98. The LADME system is employed in:

a. the development of new active compounds

b. the determination of effective dose sizes

c. the adjustment of dosage regimen

d. all of the above

C

99. A type of antagonism whereby the agonist and the antagonist bind to different receptor and have opposite

pharmacologic actions:

a. partial antagonism

b. non-equilibrium antagonism

c. non-competitive antagonism

d.competitive antagonism

C

100. A type of antagonism whereby the antagonist formsirreversible receptor binding:

a. partial antagonism

b. non-competitive antagonism

c. non-equilibrium antagonism

d. competitive antagonism