MKTG 3213: EXAM 2 - Kuzmeski

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255 Terms

1
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Transactional selling focuses on the customer relationship.

False

2
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The immediate goal of all advertising is to make exchange happen.

False

3
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When a company is looking to increase the wages of all employees, which aspect of the triple bottom line are they most likely concerned with?

People

4
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Why is breaking bulk important?

sellers want to produce in bulk, consumers want to buy in small amounts

5
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What are the two functions of a brand?

identify and differentiate

6
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What are the two parts that make up a brand?

Brand Name and Brand Mark

7
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Seeing a brand can cause consumers to automatically think of the attributes of the firm.

True

8
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A "brand" is confined to the physical name or logo associated with the firm.

False

9
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The primary value of a brand for consumers is the:

reduction of perceived risk

10
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The brand resides in the consumer's:

memory

11
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What is Spreading Activation?

When nodes are energized and brought into working memory

12
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When does activation occur?

With either external or internal cues

13
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Addi is driving from Stillwater to Dallas, and sees a McDonald's sign with golden arches (but no words). She automatically begins to think of her hunger. What kind of cue activated this thought?

External Cue

14
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Brand awareness is associated with the ability of the brand to __________ who is offering a product or service, while brand association is associated with the ability of the brand to ____________ from competitors.

identify; differentiate

15
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Which of these is not a type of brand association?

brand memories

16
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Automaticity in a branding context means:

the evaluation of a brand is brought to either conscious or subconscious thought

17
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A way of visually presenting where your brand is in consumers' minds is called a:

brand map

18
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Brand associations within a brand map can also have _______ attached to them.

mood and emotion

19
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A brand map determines brand associations from the perspective of the:

consumer

20
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When creating a brand map, a word cloud is always more useful than a table.

False

21
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The added value delivered by the brand over the functional benefits or book value is called:

Brand Equity

22
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Book value of assets + Brand equity =

Market value of brand

23
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Brand equity starts as a ________ concept, but ends up having a real ________ effect.

Psychological; monetary

24
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The "magic lesson" teaches us how to turn what into dollars?

What consumers know about the brand

25
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Which of these is not a way to turn brand equity into dollar value?

Price competition

26
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If Oreo cookies come out with a new flavor of s'mores Oreo cookies, what are they using in order to turn brand equity into dollars?

Promotional advantage

27
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The example of the purchase of the PanAm brand demonstrates how:

Brands can have value beyond the book value of the firm

28
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An agreement whereby a company permits another organization to use its brand on other products for a fee is defined as:

Brand licensing

29
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The brand name must provide _________ meaning for the product.

Secondary

30
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Which of these is not a branding strategy?

Franchise Branding

31
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Unilever houses many brands, such as SlimFast nutrition drinks, Dove soap, and Skippy peanut butter, that all sell different products. What branding strategy is used here?

Individual branding

32
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Which of these is not a benefit of individual branding?

strong connections to established brands for new brands to lean on

33
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Which of these is not a benefit of institutional branding?

greater individualized identity for new products

34
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Which of these companies is more likely to use an institutional branding strategy for a new product or service?

Sony

35
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Which of these is not a benefit of sub-branding?

increased market share

36
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What is the main advantage of using a sub-branding strategy?

All of these

37
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Mostly, business is made up of:

smaller, more frequent transactions

38
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Face-to-face communication is necessary for true "frontline" transactions.

False

39
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Technology has had little impact on organizational frontlines in most industries

False

40
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Rachel goes to Walmart to buy groceries and checks out with a cashier. When Rachel hands her cash to the Walmart employee, what kind of interaction has taken place?

Traditional interactions

41
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When Mariah needs money, she goes to an ATM instead of driving to her bank. When Mariah utilizes this ATM that represents her home bank, what kind of interaction has taken place?

Human interaction; machine services provider

42
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Which of these types of interactions is the only one where human interaction is absolutely necessary?

Traditional interactions

43
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The acronym LAURA helps us to analyze and adjust when:

a product or service has disappointed the consumer

44
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What is the definition of retailing?

Selling goods and services to consumers for their own use

45
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What is the difference between retailing and wholesaling?

retailers sell to individuals for end use; wholesalers sell to companies for resale/company use

46
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What is the difference between merchant and agent wholesalers?

merchants take ownership to a product; agents act as intermediaries

47
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Why do retailers exist?

They add value by adjusting discrepancies between the needs of consumers and sellers

48
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What is the reason for so many levels existing between the producer and end-user?

each level adds some kind of value to the end user

49
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When it comes to compensation in a channel of distribution, _______ plays the most important role

Power

50
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Brands marketed as more luxury options (such as Lexus) are likely to utilize ______ distribution intensity

Selective

51
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Which of these is not a form of a sharing economy?

P2B

52
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Air BnB uses a model where the business integrates people who own homes into the market where consumers express demand. This is most accurately described as which type of sharing economy?

Business + person

53
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What has been a problem of implementing Peer to Peer sharing?

Finding platforms where it is legal and available

54
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Of the sharing economy models, which is the most similar to traditional business models?

Business to Person

55
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What is the largest inhibitor to the growth of sharing economies?

Trust

56
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A platform that receives renting fees receives those fees from the _______ and shares those fees with the _______.

seeker; owner

57
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Which of these is not a party that shares and exchanges value in a sharing economy?

Recommender

58
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Which of these is not a potential benefit of increasing a sharing economy?

realize potential market gains

59
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What jobs are the most likely to be automated?

those with a great deal of routine

60
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The degree to which an individual possesses an enduring belief in the importance of customer satisfaction is defined as:

Customer orientation

61
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Some people innately have more of a customer orientation than others.

True

62
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It is often most important for which kind of employee to have a strong customer orientation?

Frontline

63
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When a supervisor doesn't emphasize the importance of customer satisfaction, employees with higher customer orientation:

perform fewer customer service behaviors than they might have

64
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When employees with high customer orientation are embedded in an organization that emphasizes (and benefits from) customer satisfaction, profits are likely to:

Increase

65
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In most circumstances, higher levels of customer orientation lead to all of the following except:

job turnover

66
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Employees with high customer orientation will thrive in what kind of job?

high customer interaction

67
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What are inside sales?

a type of sales in which interactions are initiated by the buyer

68
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A type of selling in which the organization is represented by multiple people, which might include a salesperson, a technical support specialist, or others, is defined as:

Team selling

69
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What is a key account?

a very large customer that provides a significant portion of revenues

70
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A form of personal selling that focuses on making an immediate sale with little or no concern for customer satisfaction or relationship development is defined as:

Transactional selling

71
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A form of personal selling that involves securing, developing, and maintaining long-term relationships with profitable customers is defined as:

Relationship selling

72
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Which of these is not a step in the personal selling process?

Prospecting

73
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When does initial contact with the potential consumer occur?

Approach

74
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What happens in the Presentation stage of the personal selling process?

determine prospect needs and present benefits; handle objections

75
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SPIN selling is about asking questions of potential customers.

True

76
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What is the point of SPIN selling?

position your product or service as the solution to the customer's problems

77
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The most successful salespeople focus on the beginning aspects of the SPIN method (e.g. Situational and Problem questions).

False

78
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What is the definition of Price?

what is exchanged for the product, service, or idea

79
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_______ is not about what we put into our product, it's what our customers get out of it.

Value

80
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The "value created" of a product or service is determined from the perspective of the:

Customer

81
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Small changes in price do not have a very large impact on bottom line profits.

False

82
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Which of these does not happen in a "smart industry"?

Companies fight with price only

83
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What is the first step in strategic pricing?

Knowing how your industry behaves

84
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What is the key difference between cost-based pricing and value-based pricing?

Where you start the process

85
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Value-based pricing will always be more profitable than cost-based pricing.

True

86
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What is price skimming?

setting a high price for a new product to skim maximum revenues

87
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What is dynamic pricing?

variable rate for each customer

88
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What is flat-rate pricing?

single rate per time period

89
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Which of the following describes peak load or congestion pricing?

Variable rate depending on time of day or week

90
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You do not need to understand margin and markup if you are using value-based pricing

False

91
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What is the main difference between the equations for margin and mark-up?

Margin is (Price - Cost)/Price and Mark-up is (Price - Cost)/Cost

92
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Mark-up can be greater than 100%

True

93
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A grocer has purchased a truckload of frozen dinners for $3 each. The grocer operates on a margin of 30% for frozen food items. What is the retail price to the consumer?

$4.29

94
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The competitive retail price for a stereo system is $300. Retail stores normally have a margin of 30% for such items. Wholesalers normally have a margin of 20% for such items. The manufacturer's price is unknown. What steps should be taken to determine the manufacturer's highest price?

Solve for Retail price, then Wholesale price, then Manufacturer price

95
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What is the breakeven point?

where profits just cover costs

96
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Assume that Netflix has introduced a new bundle service for their streaming services. Bundle 1 includes a base price of $9 to cover 25 hours of streaming for the month and variable price of $0.10 for every 30 minutes over that 25 hours. Bundle 2 includes no base price, but a variable price of $0.25 for every 30 minutes of streaming per month. When a consumer attempts to decide which bundle to use, what is he or she determining?

Breakeven point

97
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What is defined as responsiveness of demand to changes in price?

Price elasticity

98
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A change in price in an elastic market is likely to show _______ change in demand when compared to a similar change in an inelastic market.

Greater

99
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In the Transactional Model of Communication, who fulfills the role of the Sender?

Marketer

100
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The message put in place by the Sender is always identical to the message received by the Receiver

False