Dental Hygiene Theory 1 Midterm

From quizlet

ADHA stands for

American Dental Hygienists' Association

all of the follows are professional roles of the dental hygienist EXCEPT:

-prescribing medication

-researcher

-public health

-corporate

prescribing medication

The Act that established national privacy standards as it relates to the release of patient info in the health-care industry is called

HIPAA

The health history enables the dental hygienist to do which of the following:

-Maintain legal documentation

- identify conditions for which the patient should be referred for evaluation

-establish baseline information about the patient's health

- all of the above

all of the above

The health history form should be completed by the patient and verified by the dental hygienist at the first visit. The dental hygienist should review the history at each appointment to verify document changes

both statements are true

the standard regimen of prophylactic antibiotic medication for an adult patient who must receive it before dental treatment is...

2 grams amoxilicillin 1 hour before procedure

who was issues the first dental hygiene license in 1927?

Irene Newman

as soon as student graduates from an accredited dental hygiene school, s/he can practice as a dental hygienist

false

at regis college any YES answers written on medical history needs to be circled with students RED pencil

true

when a hygienist reviews a medical history a hygienist needs to understand the limitations on the healthy history which include the patient might not provide the correct info and the patient may not understand the importance of the history

true

Aerosols are particles that are larger than 50 microns. Aerosols are not visible to the naked eye, can remain airborne for extended time, and may be inhaled.

The first statement is false, the second statement is true

bacterial filtration efficiency determines the ability to filter out bacterial contaminants and it has been determined that a mask with a filtration level of ________ provides high level of protection for most exposures

95-98% of 3-5 micron particles

If I use a face shield as part of my PPE:

I do not need to wear protective eyewear

In what order should your PPE be put on?

Protective gown, mask, protective eyewear, gloves

Sharps containers should be no more than _________ full to avoid protrusion of sharps

3/4

the six elements in the chain of infection are...

Infectious agent, susceptible host, reservoir, portal of entry, portal of exit, transmission

Viruses are smaller than bacteria and reproduce only in living host. Viruses include Hepatitis A,B,C,D and HIV

Both statements are true

when working on your patient, your mask should be changed:

after every patient and/or whenever it becomes damp

__________ bacteria is picked up from things that are touched, and is removed through hand washing

transient

_______________________ is an approach to infection control that treats all human blood and human body fluids as if they are known to be infections for HIV, Hepatitis B, and other blood borne pathogens

standard precautions

all of the following are possible causes of carpal tunnel syndrome except:

- fever

- pregnancy

- tumor in wrist

- arthritis

fever

Bradycardia is when a patients pulse rate is below 50 beats per minute. The adult pulse rate can range from 60-100 beats per minute.

Both statements are true

Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the ________ nerve becomes compressed in the carpal tunnel.

Median

Korotkoff sound is the first sound that is heard through the stethoscope which indicates diastolic pressure. The size of the blood pressure cuff should be 20% greater than the diameter of the arm, as a cuff too small will result in an artificially elevated blood pressure.

First statement is false. The second statement is true.

Korotkoff sound

sound heard during the taking of blood pressure using a sphygmomanometer and stethoscope

The respiration rate is assessed by counting the _____ of the patients chest.

Rise and fall

When taking a pulse, you use the tips of the thumb, index, and middle fingers. The fingers are placed over the ulnar pulse, located on the thumb side of the ventral side of the wrist.

Both statements are false.

When taking a temperature the clinician should ask if the patient has ingested anything that was hot/cold in the last 30 minutes. The temperature probe should be placed under the tongue.

Both statements are true

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of carpal tunnel syndrome:

- pain in hand, wrist, shoulder, neck

- pain in hands when working

- nocturnal pain in hands/forearms

- they are all symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome

they are all symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome

Which tests determine the presence of carpal tunnel syndrome

Phalen's test and tinel's sign

You take the vitals of your next patient, 41 year old Patient A, whose blood pressure is 130/85 and oral temperature is 99.9.

Patient A's blood pressure is considered stage 1 hypertension. Patient A's temperature is considered normal.

The first statement is true. The second statement is false.

Your patients attached gingiva has an "orange peel" look to it. This is called ....

stippling

your patients gingiva is uniformly pale pink/pigmented. You would consider this color to indicate...

health

As you use your Nabors Probe (furcation probe), you notice the probe can go all the way through to the other side of the furcation, AND it is covered by soft tissue and is not visible. You would classify this furcation as:

Class 3

If your patient has inflammation in between teeth 8 and 9 and along the margins of 8 and 9, this would be considered

localized marginal gingivitis

In a healthy adult mouth, the gingival sulcus measures 0.5-3mm from the gingival margin to the base of the sulcus. In a healthy adult, the gingival margin is located against the tooth enamel 0.5-2mm coronal to the CEJ.

Both statements are true

Modifiable risk factors include all of the following EXCEPT:

- genetic disorders

- poor oral hygiene

- smoking

- stress

genetic disorders

The col is a saddle of interdental gingiva that connects the mesial and distal aspects of the interdental papilla. The center of the col is keratinized.

Both statements are false

Your patient presents with localized severe marginal inflammation with apical migration of the junctional epithelium between teeth 24 and 35. How would you clinically classify this patients oral tissues between 24 and 25?

periodontitis

your patient presents with mobility and the tooth can be moved up to 1mm in any direction. This classification of mobility is considered:

Class 1

________ is/are localized recession, V- shaped, forming a slit-like indentation in the gingiva.

Stillmans cleft

In order to examine the TMJ, during the extraoral examination, you use ________palpation

bilateral

the opening to the parotid gland is called the _____ duct. You dry the duct and try to express a drop of saliba to ____ the gland.

Stensons, Milk

the proper patient positioning for an extraoral examination is to have the patient...

in an upright position

the proper positioning for an intraoral examination is to have the patient

in a supine position

the thyroid gland...

- has a bowtie shape

-is located in the middle of the lower neck

- sits below the larynx

- all of the above

all of the above

the visually inspect the tongue, a damp gauze square should be used to grasp and extend it, looking at the dorsal and ventral and lateral sides. The entire body of the tongue should be bidigitally palpated.

both statements are true

what is the proper sequence for an extraoral examination?

there is no one correct sequence as long as it is logical and efficient

when performing an extraoral oral examination the clincian must use __________ to compress tissues against the underlying bone

circular motion

you stand in front of your patient and complete a general appraisal of her face, head, and neck checking for symmetry. What skill are you using?

observation

when trying to locate the TMJ the clinician must place the index fingers just in front of the tragus of each ear and ask the patient to open and close

true

Class 1 caries

pits and fissures of posterior teeth, lingual pits of maxillary incisors

Class 2 caries

proximal, posterior teeth

Class 3 caries

proximal, anterior teeth

Class 4 caries

proximal and incisal line angle, anterior

Class 5 caries

cervical 1/3 of facial or lingual

Class 6 caries

incisal edge of anterior or cusp tip of posterior

Malocclusion

any deviation from the normal positioning of the upper teeth against the lower teeth

Malocclusion Affects....

Bite

Ability to maintain adequate plaque control

Speech development

Appearance

normal occlusion

Mesiobuccal cusp of max. 1st molar occludes with buccal groove of mand. 1st molar

mesognathic

Slightly protruded jaws, facial outline is relatively flat appearance

retrognathic

Prominent maxilla and a mandible posterior to its normal relationship

prognathic

prominent protruded mandible

overbite

vertical overlap between the two arches

Overjet

horizontal overlap or distance between the two arches (ling of max. incisor and facial of mand. incisor)

normal overbite

incisal edges of max. teeth are within incisal 1/3 of mand. Teeth

moderate overbite

incisal edges of max. teeth are within middle 1/3 of mand. Teeth

severe overbite

incisal edges of max. teeth are within the cervical 1/3 of mand. teeth

open bite

Lack of incisal contact

Posterior teeth in occlusion

Edge-to-Edge (Incisal)

Incisal edges occlude

end-to-end

Cusp-to-cusp relationship of Posterior teeth.

crossbite

Maxillary teeth are lingual to mandibular teeth

Tongue thrusting

The application of forceful pressure against the anterior teeth with the tongue, causing lisp

Diastma

abnormal space between teeth

Buccoversion/Facioversion

Position buccal/facial to normal

Linguoversion

Position lingual to normal

Supraversion

Elongated above the line of occlusion

Torsiversion

Turned or rotated

midline deviation

Interproximals of maxillary centrals do not line up with interproximals of mandibular incisors

Class 2, Division 1

overbite, front teeth tilted

Class 2, Division 2

overbite

class 3 malocclusion

underbite

caries development

-Starts with acidogenic and aciduric bacteria in biofilm

-Biofilm acting to metabolize the fermentable carbohydrates ingested by the patient

-Acid formation demineralize the enamel, cementum and/or dentin and lead to cavity formation

-Continues process of demineralization and remineralization is happening throughout life of the tooth

Are caries an infectious transmissible disease?

YES

Remineralization

Occurs when the minerals are replaced in the tooth, calcium, phosphate, and flouride ions

smooth surface caries

Begins in smooth surfaces where there are no pits, grooves, biofilm collects proximal surfaces, cerical 1/3, harder to clean areas

pit and fissure carries

Occurs in endings of grooves of teeth (buccal groove of mand. molars; occlusal pits molars/premolars)

Minute faults in enamel

root caries

Soft progressive lesion of cementum and dentin

Gingival recession

Strength of CEJ

early child caries

Any dental caries in first 3 years

Nursing bottle syndrome

Rampant Caries

Rapidly progressive

Urgent intervention

CAMBRA

Caries Management by Risk Assessment

Caries risk factors

-Medium or high streptococci mutans and lactobacilli counts

-Visible heavy plaque biofilm on teeth

-Frequent snacking between meals

-Deep pits and fissures

Recreational drug use

-Inadequate salivary flow

-Saliva-reducing factors

-Exposed roots

Orthodontic appliances

Caries Protective Factors

-Lives, works, attends school in fluoridated community

-Uses fluoride toothpaste at least once daily

-Uses fluoride toothpaste at least two times/day

-Uses fluoride mouth rinse daily

-Uses 5000 ppm fluoride toothpaste daily

- Adequate salivary flow

normal PH range prior to eating

6.2 - 7.0

PH is caries susceptible patient is _____

Lower side (more acidic)

PH in caries resistant patient

Higher side (more basic)

Mutans Streptococci

-colonize the teeth and help form the biofilm because they create a sticky environment for survival multiplication

-most active during initial stages of demineralization/cavity formation

Lactobacilli

most active during the progression of the cavity

acidogenic and aciduric bacteria

produce acids as a result of metabolizing fermentable carbohydrate, increases risk for caries when present in the flora

critical PH for demineralization

4.5-5.5