4A0 CDC - URE Volume 3

The four major interrelated systems affecting the development of joint operational plans include the National Security Council System.

Joint Strategic Planning System, Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution System, and Joint Operations Planning Execution System.

What is an on-going process that enables senior leadership to evaluate other ways to achieve the best mix of force, requirements, and support within fiscal constraints?

Planning, Programming and Budgeting Execution (PPBE) System.

What is the tactical use of aircraft or forces in a desired area of operation, and is the actual use of forces within a combat zone or an objective area?

Employment.

What is the command authority that may be exercised by commanders at any echelon at or below the level of combatant command?

Operational control.

In order to effectively support the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF), when do functional areas revalidate the tempo band alignment of their respective capability areas and realign forces, if necessary?

Prior to the beginning of every AEF cycle.

What is the timeframe of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) life cycle?

24 months.

What is the Air Force's war planning system?

DCAPES.

What system's objective is to enable improved and streamlined operations planning and execution process?

DCAPES.

According to the DOD, a unit task code is developed and assigned by the

Joint Chiefs of Staff.

What is a standard manpower listing published to identify the manpower tasked to deploy in support of specific unit task codes (UTC)?

Manpower Force Element Listing (MFEL).

What is the three tier rating system in the Air and Space Expedition Force reporting tool (ART)?

Red, yellow, green.

Which of the following is NOT a minimum requirement to update the Air and Space Expedition Force reporting tool (ART)?

Daily.

Who is responsible for assessing the "mission ready" status of their unit, assigned unit type codes (UTC), and assigned personnel?

Unit commander.

Who assigns the unit's missions and goals in the Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS)?

Secretary of Defense (SECDEF).

What is an internal management tool used by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, Unified Commands, and Combat Support Agencies?

Status of Resources and Training System report (SORTS).

What C-level states the unit possess the required resources and is trained to undertake the full wartime mission for which it is organized or designed?

C-1.

Units must update the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) monthly, no later then what day of the month?

15th.

What is the official system of record for management of expeditionary medical personnel and resources for the Air Force Medical Service (AFMS)?

MRDSS-ULTRA.

Who must approve user accounts before the Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS) Help Desk creates accounts?

Major command (MAJCOM) or higher headquarters.

In the Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS), what tool is designed to manage the Air Force Medical Service (AFMS) readiness resources?

Medical Resource Letter.

What plan is the medical unit commander's plan, establishing procedures for the unit's expeditionary missions identified in the designed operation capability (DOC) statement and emergency response missions identified in the Comprehensive Emergency management Plan (CEMP)?

MCRP.

What triage category would include injuries that need immediate medical or surgical attention to save a life?

Immediate.

Once the minutes are approved, who should they be submitted to?

MAJCOM readiness office.

When unit personnel are processed through the personnel deployment function (PDF), who is responsible for their accountability?

Personnel deployment function.

At minimum, who attends the deployment order briefing?

The unit deployment manager (UDM).

Who does the unit deployment manager (UDM) notify for remedial actions when unit task codes (UTC) cannot be supported due to changes in manpower or equipment?

Installation deployment office (IDO).

Once you have navigated to the Training Overview Page, what do you select to update an individual's training information?

Find individual's record.

What part of the deployment folder if for major command (MAJCOM)/installation/wing/unit requirements?

Part 5.

All of the following should be on the in-processing checklist, EXCEPT

Give the member their mobility folder.

The medical control center is also known as the

Unit control center.

The alert notification and recall system used through the Air Force is referred to as what kind of system?

Pyramid alerting system.

Who's function is it to oversee the mission operation of the installation?

Crisis action team (CAT).

Who has overall authority and responsibility for conducting all incident activities including development of strategies and tactics and distribution of resources at the incident site?

Incident commander.

On a military map, what color represents main roads, built-up areas, and special features?

Red.

On a grid coordinate of 2.5/E.4, the 2 represents the

Vertical grid line.

What time frame should an event log cover?

24-hour period.

On a military map, what color illustrates the relief features, such as the vertical elevation of the terrain on a map as seen from above?

Brown.

What is the first step in completing a checklist?

Evaluate the scenario.

What phase of aeromedical evacuation (AE) provides airlift for patients between points within the battlefield, from the battlefield to the initial point of treatment, and then subsequent points of treatment within the combat zone?

Forward.

What phase of aeromedical evacuation (AE) provides airlift for patients between points of treatment outside the combat zone, within a theater of operations?

Theater.

Who approves the activation or inactivation of designated aeromedical staging facility (ASF) or the partial curtailment of the mission assigned to an ASF?

AF Chief of Staff.

The primary USAF aircrafts supporting intratheater aeromedical evacuation (AE) are all of the following, EXCEPT the

UH 60 Medevac Black Hawk Helicopter.

What patient movement requirement center (PMRC) is located at Scott AFB?

TPMRC-A.

Medical evacuation (MEDEVAC) typically is associated with what type of aircraft?

Rotary wing.

What priority is assigned to a patient who should be evacuated as soon as possible and within a maximum of one hour?

I-Urgent.

What priority is assigned to a patient who should be evacuated within 24 hours?

III-Routine.

An air ambulance (AA) is typically conserved for what priority patient?

I-Urgent.

What information system does the Theater Medical Information Program-Joint (TMIP-J) transfer so it can be viewed by authorized healthcare providers all over the world?

TMDS.

Which capability is not available in the Theater Medical Information Program-Joint (TMIP-J)?

Notification status.

A patient requiring the use of retraining apparatus, sedation, and close supervision at all times should be classified as a

Severe psychiatric litter patient.

Patients requiring rest during a long aeromedical evacuation (AE) flight because of recent surgery should be classified as

Litter.

Which classification is given to medical attendants flying in the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system?

6A.

Which classification is given to non-medical attendants flying in the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system?

6B.

In the AE system, the origination physician's responsibility for a patient ends when

The patient is under the direct care of the accepting physician at the destination MTF.

Which individual is also a focal point that Theater Patient Movement Requirements Centers (TPMRC) personnel can contact for questions concerning a patient's movement?

Patient movement technician.

The name of the attending physician entered on the AF Form 3899 is the

Physician who is treating the patient at the originating MTF.

All of the following needs to be prepared for the flight, EXCEPT for which item?

Attending physician.

It's important to check the Mission Document for the flight in order to

Make sure everyone is entered is on the appropriate flight.

Who will notify you of special administrative requirements your patients may require for the flight?

Patient Movement Center.

What does the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) code written to the left of the red cross on the DD Form 600, Patient's Baggage Tag represent?

The facility where an AE patient will remain overnight (RON) awaiting AE movement to the final destination.

Who's responsibility is it to ensure the DD Form 602, Patient Evacuation Tag, includes all essential patient information?

The attending physician.

The dimensions of stowed baggage for aeromedical evacuation patients must NOT exceed

72 inches in any one direction or 100 inches overall (length+width+height).

Which item listed below is NOT part oft he anti-hijacking search?

Allow boarding to individuals refusing anti-hijacking inspection.

All of the following are authorized litters for aeromedical evacuation, EXCEPT the

Air Force decontamination litter.

When a patient is in RON status, on which form should the evaluation, treatment and medication be documented?

DD Form 602, Patient Evacuation Tag.

What is the primary purpose of release certificate, which is signed by the patient when he or she desires to be released from the AE system of his or her own free will?

Releases the US government its agents and employees from all responsibility, liability, and resulting damage.

What service(s) is/are involved with the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (DES)?

Air Force, Army, Navy, Marine Corps.

In general, Airmen are not eligible for disability due to all of the following reasons, EXCEPT

Airmen pending honorable discharge.

All of the following are examples of trigger events, EXCEPT for

PCS cancellation for administrative actions.

What type of condition is not eligible for referral to the Disability Evaluation System (DES)?

Unfit.

What is a report of an Airman's injury or illness, based on evaluation by a medical professional, that describes specific physical activities or functions that are recommended for the Airman to avoid allowing recovery or reducing risk of further injury?

Duty restriction.

An AF Form 469 and AF Form 422 are good for a maximum of how many days?

365 days.

An Airmen should be referred to the deployment availability working group (DAWG) if a mobility restriction goes over how many days?

90 days.

Who from the following list is not required to attend the deployment availability working group (DAWG)?

Medical group commander.

What is an authorized disposition the deployment availability working group (DAWG) can make?

Case dismissal.

One AFPC/DPANM (Medical Retention Standards Branch) reviews an initial review in lieu of (RILO), how do they notify the physical evaluation board liaison office (PEBLO) of the determination?

AFPC/FL 4.

Who appoints the MEB clerk and Physical Evaluation board liaison Officer (PEBLO), and by what means is the PEBLO tasked?

MTF commander; published orders.

Which of the following is a responsibility of the MEB clerk?

Schedules cases for board hearings.

Which of the following is a responsibility of the Physical Evaluation Board liaison officer (PEBLO)?

Counseling members or NOK on the PEB findings and recommended disposition as documented on AF Form 356, Findings and Recommended Disposition of USAF Physical Evaluation board.

Before the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (IDES) process existed, how long would the average MEB take from case imitation to Veteran's Administration (VA) rating?

3 years.

Who is the non-clinical benefits advisor to the member while going through the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (IDES)?

VA-MSC.

The Veterans Tracking Application

is a web-enabled tool.

The Veterans Tracking Application

is hosted on the Veterans Information Portal (VIP).

When the providing care manager (PCM), or referring provider, reviews the compensation and pension (C&P) results, and does no note any inconsistencies, what should the PCM do?

Endorse the NARSUM, stating it is current and complete.

A medical board can be convened to determine an individual's mental competence for pay and records purposes when the member

Has a specific psychiatric illness or illnesses.

Who designates the MTF to conduct a MEB on a general officer?

HQ AFPC/DPANM.

Who can authorize a MTF to conduct a MEB on an assigned enlisted staff member who has been a disciplinary problem?

AFPC/DPANM.

Who can be voting member(s) on the MED?

Residents.

Who appoints MED members, and by what means are they tasked?

MTF commander; appointing orders.

Under normal conditions, how many board members are required for a MED?

3.

Who has review and approval authority over the AF Form 618, Medical Board Report?

MTF commander and their designee.

After the evaluee has been informed of the MED findings, how many days does the member have to request an impartial review?

3 duty days.

If the impartial reviewer finds that the review does no support the MED findings, the reviewer should contact the

MED President concurrently with notification to the member.

Although assignment limitation codes (ALC)-C are valid indefinitely, how often should the codes be reviewed?

At least annually, unless otherwise specified by the Medical Retention Standards branch (DPANM).

What assignment limitation code (ALC) is for members who should not be deployed or assigned away from specialty medical capability required to manage their unique medical condition?

ALC-C3.

A member may be permanently retired when the member has

A disabling condition that is determined to be stable.

What is the maximum amount of time a member is authorized to be on a Temporary Disabled Retirement List (TDRL)?

5 years.

Who appoints an officer to serve as the Patient Squadron commander?

MTF/CC.

How long or when does the Wounded Warrior Program work with the service member and the medical team to develop a comprehensive recovery plan?

It provides lifetime support.

Recovery care coordinator (RCC) and Wounded Warrior advocates are typically assigned to seriously wounded, ill, or injured service members whose medical conditions are expected to last at least how many days?

180.