1/239
Looks like no tags are added yet.
Name | Mastery | Learn | Test | Matching | Spaced | Call with Kai |
|---|
No study sessions yet.
Strain of M. Bovis which is used to produce the M. tuberculosis vaccine
Attenuated strain used of TB vaccine (Bacille-calmete- Guerin, BCG)
Mycobacterium species which cannot be cultured in the laboratory routinely (requires living cells)
Mycobacterium leprae
mycobacteria associated with AIDS
MAC complex
Rapid grower
visible growth in <7 days (upon subculture)
slow grower
Require >7 days on solid media under ideal culture conditions
Scotochromgoen
pigment produced in either light or dark
Photochromogen
pigment produced only when exposed to light
Nonchromogen
no pigment production
Carotenoid pigments
yellow, orange rare pink pigments
list the special requirements of isolation of M. haemophilum
requires hemming (CHOH) because is fastidious
When is it appropriate to submit a stool sample for mycobacterial culture
detection of mycobacterium avian complex in AIDS patients
Contamination rate that mycobacteria labs should strive for when assessing their decontamination process
2-5%
fluorescent stain that is specific for acid-fast organisms and is the best choice for screening specimens
auramine-rhodamine stain
Where are all cultures set up
in solid media and broth media
Temperature for skin cultures
30C
temperatures for sputum/respiratory cultures
37C
how long should mycobacteria cultures should be incubated before reporting final results
6-8 weeks
what factor seen microscopically is suggestive of M. tuberculosis and indicates virulence
cording factor (serpentine arrangement)
2nd most common cause of NTM lung disease
mycobacterium kansasii
disease caused by M. ulcerans
burly ulcer/ Bairnsdale ulcer
microscopic appearance of M/ kansasii when stained with a carbofuchsin stain
long rods with distinct cross banding (candy cane)
most common type of infection and route of transmission associated with M. marinnum
cutaneous lesion or ulcers
Mycobacterium species which is generally nonpathogenic and common contaminant in the AFB lab
mycobacterium gordonae
scrofula
lymphadenopathy and draining wound in neck of children
which mycobacterium is commonly implicated in scrofula
mycobacterium scrofulaceum
Rapidly-growing mycobacteria that is associated with cystic fibrosis patients
mycobacterium abscessus
Extensively drug-resistant TB (XDR-TB)
resistant to rifampin, isoniazid, quinolones, and other drugs
multidrug resistance TB (MDR-TB)
resistant to rifampin and ionized
Turnaround time for conventional ID
1-3 days after specimen received from lab
Turn around time for MALDI-TOP MS ID
within minutes
Duplex/ hybrid
ds structure formed when two complementary ss nucleic acids anneal together by base pairing
Stringency
conditions set for optimal target-probe binding
low stringency
forgiving, less base-pairing required
high stringency
strict, high degree of base-pairing
Denaturation stage of PCR temperature
94C
Primer annealing stage of PCR temperature
55-62C
Elongation stage of PCR temperature
72C
Method of DNA denaturation during PCR
separation of complementary dsDNa to ssDNA
General design of primer used in PCR
genus-specific, specifies-specific, antimicrobial resistance genes
most common targets used for PCR amplification of bacterial nucleic acid
16s rRNA and 23s rRNA
Why Taq DNA polymerase is the enzyme utilized in most PCR reactions
Stable at higher temperatures through several amplification cycles
Amplicon
amplified PCR product
What phase of End-Point PCR is monitored
Plateae pahse
What phase of Real time PCR is monitored
Exponential phase
Threshold cycle
cycle number at which the fluorescence crosses background threshold
Relationship between Ct value and amount of initial target sequence present
Inversely related
Melting temperature
temp at which 50% of DNA denatures into two strands (melts)
Principle of Multiplex PCR
allows detection of multiple target in a single reaction
Anaerobe
bacterium that is able to replicate without oxygen
Polymicrobial
the infections process or site of infection contains many different organisms at site
Pleomorphic
variable number of shapes, sixes, and forms
Strict obligate anaerobe
extremely oxygen sensitive and killed by its presence
Aerotolerant anaerobes
tolerate moderate exposure to oxygen
facultative anaerobes
grow under aerobic or anaerobic conditions
Microaerophiles
need reduced O2 and increased CO2 for growth
Obligate aerobes
require O2 and do not grow under anaerobic conditions
most common anaerobes category
aerotolerant anaerobes
most common aerobes category
facultative aerobes
normal flora in humans and other animals
endogenous
ecological niches outside the bodies of animals
exogenous
Which source is the most common in anaerobic infections
endogenous infections
How do most anaerobic endogenous infections happen
trauma to skin to mucous membranes
why ar most anaerobic infections polymicrobial
they decrease redox environment where anaerobes live, therefore many organisms can be at the site of infection
Common cause of exogenous infections
from soil or ingestion of contaminated food
Why are aspirated specimens preferred over specimens submitted on swabs
difficult to transfer bacteria for testing and involves too much O2 exposure
Why does the site form which a specimen was collected affects its acceptability
want to the sterile body site because there are too many normal flora aerobes in non sterile sites
factor that has the largest impact on the oxidation-reduction potential of anaerobic media
pH
Anaerobic blood agar (ABAP)
recovery of most anaerobes
Phenylethyl alcohol (PEA)
inhibits facultative anaerobic GNRs and proteus swarming
Supports anaerobic GP & GN organisms
Kanamycin/vancomycin lakes blood (KVLB/LKV)
kanamycin inhibits most of facultative GNRs
Vancomycin inhibits most GPs
Bacteroides Bile Esculin
prevent growth of most organisms and will turn black
Ambient air conditions
21% O2, 0.03 CO2
CO2 conditions
15-21% O2, 5-10% CO2
Microaerophilic conditions
5% O2, 10% CO2
anaerobic conditions
0% O2, 5-10% CO2
Typical catalyst used in anaerobe chamber
palladium coated aluminum pellets
Desiccant used in anaerobe chambers
silica gel
gas mixture in anaerobe chamber
5% H2, 5-10% CO2, and 85-90% N2
Oxidation reductions indicators used in anaerobe chambers
methylene blue or resazurin
importance of incubating anaerobe plates and biochemical for 48hrs
mist susceptible to toxic oxygen within the first 48hrs
lecithinase role in egg yolk agar
cleaves lecithin and release insoluble fat
lipase role in egg yolk agar
hydrolyzes triglycerides and diglycerides to fatty acids and glycerol
Proteolysis role in egg yolk agar
breaks down proteins and form clearing around colonies
most common causative agent of my necrosis/gas gangrene
Clostridium perfingens m
media used for isolation of C. difficile
CCFA
true terminal spores
located at the end
classical subterminal spore
located near the end
What test allows B. fragile group to be divided into two groups
Indole
Organism that is typically found as a contaminant in blood or CSF
S. saccharolyticus
Cutibacterium acnes disease
shunt infections
clostridium tetani disease
tetanus or lock jaw
clostridium septicum disease
colon cancer
clostridium botulinum
floppy baby syndrome, foodborne/wound botulism, food poisoning
clostridium perfingens disease
gas gangrene (myonecrosis), food poisoning (meats and gravy)
Clostridium difficile
pseudomembranous colitis or antibiotic associated diarrhea
Actinomyces disease
actinomycosis or lumpy jaw (sulfur granules)
Mobiluncus disease
bacterial vaginosis
antimicrobial agent
a substance naturally or synthetically produced by living organisms such as bacteria and/or fungi, able to dilute solution to inhibit or kill another microorganism
Antibiotic
tending to prevent, inhibit, or destroy life
Spectrum of activity
range of activity that an antimicrobial agent/antibiotic has against certain groups of bacteria