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Last updated 6:10 PM on 3/31/26
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41 Terms

1
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Which of the following best defines 'linkage' in genetics?

a) The random segregation of genes during mitosis

b) The tendency of genes located far apart on a chromosome to be inherited together

c) The tendency of genes located close together on a chromosome to be inherited together

d) The spontaneous mutation of genes

c) The tendency of genes located close together on a chromosome to be inherited together

2
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What is the result of crossing over during meiosis contributing to genetic diversity?

a) New combinations of alleles are created

b) Homologous chromosomes separate

c) Sister chromatids separate

d) Chromosomes condense

a) New combinations of alleles are created

3
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What role do molecular markers serve in genetic research?

a) They cause genetic mutations

b) They control gene expression

c) They serve as identifiable points of variation along the genome

d) They are involved in protein synthesis

c) They serve as identifiable points of variation along the genome

4
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What are SSRs composed of?

a) Long, unique DNA sequences

b) Repeated protein motifs

c) Short, repeated DNA sequence motifs

d) Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)

c) Short, repeated DNA sequence motifs

5
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Which term is synonymous with SSRs in genetic research?

a) SNP markers

b) RFLPs

c) Microsatellites

d) Long repeats

c) Microsatellites

6
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What defines Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs)?

a) Variations in the number of nucleotides within a sequence

b) Variations at single nucleotide positions in the genome

c) Variations in the arrangement of DNA motifs

d) Variations in the number of repeats

b) Variations at single nucleotide positions in the genome

7
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How do RFLPs arise?

a) Variations in nucleotide number

b) Variations at single nucleotide positions

c) Mutations in restriction enzyme recognition sites

d) Changes in DNA motif arrangement

c) Mutations in restriction enzyme recognition sites

8
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How are RFLPs detected?

a) Observing nucleotide number variations

b) Analyzing SNPs

c) Measuring fragment length differences after digestion

d) Examining motif arrangement

c) Measuring differences in fragment lengths after enzyme digestion

9
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What is the initial step in positional gene cloning?

a) Cloning the gene

b) Identifying phenotype

c) Establishing linkage between markers and phenotype

d) Identifying chromosomal position

c) Establishing linkage between molecular markers and disease phenotype

10
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What is the primary aim of physical mapping?

a) Identifying gene locations

b) Determining chromosome positions

c) Narrowing down gene region

d) Identifying markers

c) Narrowing down the region containing the gene of interest

11
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What is chromosome walking used for?

a) Identify abnormalities

b) Count chromosomes

c) Locate and clone genes based on known sequences

d) Study DNA fragments

c) To locate and clone a gene of interest based on known sequences

12
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Which criterion helps identify candidate genes?

a) Repetitive sequences

b) Absence of exons

c) mRNA transcription in relevant tissues

d) Lack of conservation

c) Transcription of mRNA in relevant tissues

13
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What is the significance of cDNA?

a) Synthesizes RNA

b) Template for proteins

c) Reflects gene expression profile

d) Catalyzes transcription

c) It reflects the gene expression profile

14
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What is colony hybridization used for?

a) Amplify DNA

b) Detect DNA sequences in cDNA library

c) Measure expression

d) Induce mutations

b) Detect specific DNA sequences

15
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How does in situ hybridization work?

a) Amplifies DNA

b) Degrades mRNA

c) Visualizes mRNA in tissues

d) Labels proteins

c) Visualizes mRNA localization

16
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What does Pax6 demonstrate?

a) Not involved in eye development

b) Master regulator conserved across species

c) Only in humans

d) No homolog in flies

b) Master regulator of eye development

17
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What contributes to peptide bond stability?

a) Low activation energy

b) Rapid formation

c) Spontaneous breaking

d) High activation energy barrier

d) High activation energy barrier

18
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What does activation energy barrier do?

a) Destabilizes bonds

b) Speeds breaking

c) Prevents spontaneous dissociation

d) Stops formation

c) Prevents spontaneous dissociation

19
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What is the role of double bond character?

a) Flexibility

b) Hydrogen bonding

c) Restricts rotation

d) Hydrophobicity

c) Restricts rotation

20
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What structural effect results from resonance?

a) Flexibility

b) Restricted rotation

c) Branching

d) Instability

b) Restricted rotation

21
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What does restricted rotation allow?

a) Branching

b) Flexibility

c) Instability

d) Precise folding

d) Precise folding

22
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Function of rotation in amino acids?

a) Branching

b) Rigidity

c) Bond formation

d) Flexibility

d) Conformational flexibility

23
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Alpha-carbon configuration?

a) Cis

b) Trans

c) Helical

d) Branched

b) Trans

24
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Energy of trans vs cis?

a) Higher

b) Lower

c) Same

d) Unaffected

b) Lower

25
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How does trans increase stability?

a) Flexibility

b) Changes

c) Minimizes clashes

d) Non-covalent bonds

c) Minimizes clashes

26
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How do hydrogen bonds form?

a) H-N interaction

b) H-S interaction

c) H with carbonyl O

d) H with phosphate

c) Hydrogen with carbonyl oxygen

27
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Hydrogen bonds contribute to?

a) Destabilization

b) Prevent folding

c) Minor role

d) Secondary structure formation

d) Secondary structure formation

28
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Alpha helix rotation direction?

a) Counterclockwise

b) Clockwise

c) Upward

d) Downward

b) Clockwise

29
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What stabilizes alpha helix?

a) Ionic bonds

b) Van der Waals

c) Hydrophobic

d) Hydrogen bonds

d) Hydrogen bonds

30
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Alpha helix structure?

a) Backbone outside

b) Backbone inside

c) Both outside

d) Both inside

b) Backbone inside

31
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Examples of secondary structure?

a) Alpha helices & beta sheets

b) Tertiary & quaternary

c) Coiled coils

d) Turns

a) Alpha helices & beta sheets

32
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Sharp turns called?

a) Alpha helices

b) Beta sheets

c) Beta turns

d) Random coils

c) Beta turns

33
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Role of beta turns?

a) Backbone stability

b) Secondary arrangement

c) Chain interaction

d) Compactness

d) Compactness

34
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Tertiary structure refers to?

a) Sequence

b) Secondary arrangement

c) 3D shape

d) Interaction

c) 3D shape

35
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What describes tertiary structure?

a) Backbone only

b) Between chains

c) Primary structure

d) Side chain interactions

d) Side chain interactions

36
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Quaternary structure refers to?

a) Secondary arrangement

b) Single protein shape

c) Multiple subunits

d) Side chain interactions

c) Multiple protein subunits

37
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X-ray diffraction reveals?

a) Color

b) Taste

c) 3D structure

d) Movement

c) 3D structure

38
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Crystallization method?

a) Microbatch

b) Vapor diffusion

c) Batch

d) Filtration

b) Vapor diffusion

39
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Role of nucleation?

a) Prevent growth

b) Building block

c) Reduce stability

d) Lower concentration

b) Building block

40
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What happens in X-ray diffraction?

a) Fluorescence

b) Scattering

c) Heat release

d) Bond formation

b) Scattering

41
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Diffraction spots indicate?

a) Taste

b) Size

c) Atomic plane orientation

d) Color

c) Atomic plane orientation

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