Comprehensive Pathophysiology Review – Days 1-7

75 concise question-and-answer flashcards covering fluid-electrolyte balance, hormonal regulation, inflammation, infection, oncology, immunity, and aging to prepare for the pathophysiology exam.

What hormone released from the posterior pituitary promotes water retention in the kidneys?

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

Which renal hormone increases sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion?

Aldosterone.

What hormonal system is activated when blood pressure or renal perfusion drops, retaining sodium and water?

Renin–Angiotensin–Aldosterone System (RAAS).

In a hypotonic solution, what happens to a cell?

The cell swells as water moves in.

In a hypertonic solution, how do cells respond?

Cells shrink as water moves out.

Define isotonic solution in terms of fluid shift.

No net movement of water into or out of cells.

Osmosis is best described as the movement of toward a higher solute concentration.

Water.

Diffusion involves particles moving from concentration to concentration.

High; low.

Which electrolyte primarily affects the nervous system?

Sodium (Na⁺).

Which electrolyte imbalance mainly affects cardiac and muscle function?

Potassium (K⁺) imbalance.

List two hallmark ECG or clinical signs of hyperkalemia.

Peaked T-waves and muscle weakness (or arrhythmias).

Name three types of solution tonicity.

Isotonic, hypotonic, hypertonic.

Give two common causes of fluid volume deficit.

Hemorrhage and excessive vomiting/diarrhea (others: diuretics, burns).

Which axis controls the physiologic stress response?

Hypothalamic–Pituitary–Adrenal (HPA) axis.

What glucocorticoid elevates blood glucose and suppresses immunity during stress?

Cortisol.

In SIADH there is excess secretion of which hormone?

ADH (antidiuretic hormone).

State the three stages of General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS).

Alarm, Resistance, Exhaustion.

What type of feedback loop typically regulates endocrine hormones?

Negative feedback.

Provide two classic signs of hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome).

Moon face and central obesity (others: muscle wasting, infections, hypertension).

Contrast SIADH with Diabetes Insipidus regarding urine output.

SIADH: low urine output, concentrated; DI: high urine output, dilute.

Define pathophysiology.

Study of functional changes associated with disease or injury.

What term describes the cause of a disease?

Etiology.

Pathogenesis refers to what aspect of disease?

The development or evolution of the disease process.

Identify the first line of immune defense to injury.

Acute inflammation.

Which two mediators cause vasodilation during inflammation?

Histamine and bradykinin.

List the five cardinal signs of inflammation.

Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function.

Differentiate vascular vs. cellular inflammatory responses in one phrase.

Vascular: blood-flow changes; Cellular: leukocyte migration and phagocytosis.

What is the main function of cytokines in inflammation?

Cell-to-cell signaling to coordinate immune responses.

Bradykinin primarily produces which symptom?

Pain (and vasodilation).

Define pathogen.

Any microorganism capable of causing disease.

Name the six links in the chain of infection.

Infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host.

The majority of community-acquired UTIs are caused by which organism?

Escherichia coli (E. coli).

Why does shingles follow a dermatomal distribution?

The varicella-zoster virus reactivates along a single sensory nerve root (dermatome).

State two life-threatening complications of bacterial meningitis.

Increased intracranial pressure and septic shock (also brain herniation).

Define neoplasm.

New, uncontrolled growth of abnormal tissue (tumor).

How do benign tumors differ from malignant tumors regarding differentiation and spread?

Benign: well-differentiated, non-invasive; Malignant: poorly differentiated, invasive, can metastasize.

What term describes the spread of cancer cells to distant sites?

Metastasis.

Oncogenes have what primary function when mutated or overexpressed?

Promote uncontrolled cell growth and division.

Tumor suppressor genes normally perform what role?

Inhibit cell division and promote apoptosis.

Explain the TNM cancer staging system components.

T = size/extent of primary Tumor, N = Node involvement, M = distant Metastasis.

Define carcinogenesis.

Multistep process of normal cells transforming into cancer cells.

What is anaplasia?

Loss of cell differentiation and orientation characteristic of malignancy.

Define autonomy in the context of tumor cells.

Growth independent of normal cellular controls.

Compare innate and adaptive immunity in one sentence.

Innate immunity is immediate and non-specific; adaptive immunity is slower, specific, and develops memory.

Which type of immunity involves B cells and circulating antibodies?

Humoral (adaptive) immunity.

Which lymphocytes mediate cell-mediated immunity by killing infected cells?

T lymphocytes (especially cytotoxic T cells).

IgM has what distinguishing characteristic in an immune response?

First antibody produced in the primary (initial) response.

Which immunoglobulin is most abundant in serum and crosses the placenta?

IgG.

IgA is predominantly found in which body fluids?

Secretions such as saliva, tears, and breast milk.

An allergic reaction is primarily mediated by which immunoglobulin?

IgE.

Define active immunity.

Immunity produced by the host after exposure to an antigen (infection or vaccination).

Passive immunity provides antibodies from another source; give one natural example.

Maternal IgG crossing the placenta to the fetus (or IgA in breast milk).

HIV targets and depletes which specific immune cell subset?

CD4⁺ T helper cells.

Name the autoimmune disease characterized by malar rash, photosensitivity, and positive ANA.

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE).

List the four types of hypersensitivity reactions (just names).

Type I (IgE-mediated), Type II (cytotoxic), Type III (immune complex), Type IV (delayed cell-mediated).

Define cellular senescence.

Permanent loss of a cell's ability to divide, contributing to aging.

What is osteoporosis?

Loss of bone mass and density leading to fragile, porous bones.

Age-related loss of skeletal muscle mass is called what?

Sarcopenia.

Presbycusis refers to what sensory decline?

Age-related hearing loss.

Presbyopia is difficulty seeing _.

Near objects (age-related farsightedness).

Explain the free radical theory of aging in one sentence.

Accumulated oxidative damage from free radicals leads to cellular aging and dysfunction.

What term describes immune decline with age?

Immunosenescence.

Kyphosis is defined as what spinal change common in older adults?

Excessive forward curvature (rounding) of the upper back.

Contrast free radical theory with wear-and-tear theory of aging in one phrase.

Free radical: oxidative injury; Wear-and-tear: cumulative mechanical and metabolic damage.

Low blood pressure or low renal perfusion triggers what hormonal system?

RAAS (Renin–Angiotensin–Aldosterone System).

What electrolyte abnormality is most common in SIADH?

Hyponatremia (serum sodium < 135 mEq/L).

Which electrolyte imbalance—hypernatremia or hyperkalemia—is most likely to cause life-threatening arrhythmias?

Hyperkalemia.

A deep partial-thickness burn typically presents with what two hallmark findings?

Blister formation and deep redness (also pain and moist surface).

Define exudate in the context of infection or inflammation.

Protein-rich fluid that escapes from vessels into tissues due to increased permeability.

Lymphadenopathy refers to what clinical finding?

Enlarged lymph nodes.

What pathophysiologic event underlies shingles reactivation?

Latent varicella-zoster virus reactivates in sensory dorsal-root ganglia.