CONSTITUTIONAL VALUES

1. What are the two houses of the State Legislature in a bicameral system? a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha b) Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad c) Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat d) Legislative Assembly and Lok Sabha

b) Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad

2. Which of the following states has a bicameral legislature? a) Rajasthan b) Maharashtra c) Haryana d) Gujarat

b) Maharashtra

3. The Vidhan Sabha is also known as: a) Legislative Assembly b) Legislative Council c) Upper House d) House of States

a) Legislative Assembly

4. What is the minimum age to become a member of the Vidhan Sabha? a) 18 years b) 21 years c) 25 years d) 30 years

c) 25 years

5. Who is the presiding officer of the Vidhan Sabha? a) Chief Minister b) Governor c) Speaker d) Chairman

c) Speaker

6. Members of the Vidhan Parishad are elected for a term of how many years? a) 4 years b) 5 years c) 6 years d) 7 years

c) 6 years

7. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the composition of the State Legislature? a) Article 170 b) Article 171 c) Article 168 d) Article 169

c) Article 168

8. The maximum strength of the Vidhan Sabha in any state is limited to: a) 400 members b) 500 members c) 450 members d) 550 members

b) 500 members

9. The power to dissolve the Vidhan Sabha rests with: a) Chief Minister b) Speaker c) President of India d) Governor

d) Governor

10. In which house of the State Legislature can a Money Bill be introduced? a) Vidhan Parishad b) Vidhan Sabha c) Both d) Neither

b) Vidhan Sabha

11. What is the primary function of the State Legislature? a) Enforcing laws b) Making laws for the state c) Conducting elections d) Resolving disputes

b) Making laws for the state

12. A Money Bill in the State Legislature is primarily related to: a) Administration b) Public welfare c) Financial matters d) Constitutional amendments

c) Financial matters like taxation and expenditure

13. Which part of the State Legislature has control over the Council of Ministers? a) Vidhan Parishad b) Vidhan Sabha c) Governor d) Judiciary

b) Vidhan Sabha

14. The State Legislature can legislate on subjects in which list? a) Union b) State and Concurrent c) Residuary d) None

b) State List and Concurrent List

15. Who approves the state budget presented by the Finance Minister? a) Vidhan Parishad b) Vidhan Sabha c) Governor d) Chief Minister

b) Vidhan Sabha

16. Which statement about State Legislature is true? a) No role in electing President b) Participates in amendment c) Can dismiss CM d) Can dissolve council

b) Participates in amendment of certain parts of Constitution

17. What happens if the State Legislature fails to pass the annual budget? a) Governor dissolves Legislature b) CM resigns c) Government loses majority d) President rule

c) Government considered to have lost majority

18. On which matter can State Legislature NOT legislate? a) Union List b) State List c) Concurrent List d) Governor referred matters

a) Subjects in Union List

19. Which function is performed by Vidhan Parishad? a) Passing budget b) Introducing Money Bills c) Reviewing bills d) Appointing Governor

c) Reviewing and amending bills

20. Who is the constitutional head of the state? a) Chief Minister b) Governor c) Speaker d) Advocate General

b) Governor

21. The real executive authority in a state lies with the: a) Governor b) CM and Council c) Speaker d) High Court

b) Chief Minister and Council of Ministers

22. The Governor of a state is appointed by: a) Prime Minister b) Chief Minister c) President d) Chief Justice

c) President of India

23. Minimum age to become Governor: a) 25 b) 30 c) 35 d) 40

c) 35 years

24. Who administers oath to Governor? a) CJI b) CM c) President d) Chief Justice of High Court

d) Chief Justice of High Court

25. Which power is NOT vested in Governor? a) Legislative b) Judicial c) Military d) Executive

c) Military powers

26. Chief Minister is appointed by: a) Governor b) President c) Speaker d) Prime Minister

a) Governor

27. Governor’s term is: a) 4 years b) 5 years c) 6 years d) Pleasure of President

b) 5 years

28. Legal advisor to State Government: a) Chief Secretary b) Advocate General c) Solicitor General d) Attorney General

b) Advocate General

29. Correct statement about Governor: a) Can dissolve Vidhan Sabha b) Can impeach CM c) Cannot reserve bill d) Elected by legislature

a) Governor can dissolve Vidhan Sabha

30. State Executive consists of: a) Governor + CM b) Governor + CM + Council c) Governor + Assembly d) Governor + Parishad

b) Governor, CM and Council of Ministers

31. Who advises the Governor in exercising functions? a) President b) Chief Minister and Council of Ministers c) Supreme Court d) Union Cabinet

b) Chief Minister and Council of Ministers

32. The Governor’s discretionary power includes: a) Dismissing CM at will b) Reserving bill for President c) Rejecting council advice d) Amending Constitution

b) Reserving a bill for the President's consideration

33. In absence of Chief Minister who temporarily takes duties? a) Governor b) Deputy Chief Minister c) Speaker d) Home Minister

b) Deputy Chief Minister

34. Which article specifies functions of Governor? a) Article 153 b) Article 154 c) Article 155 d) Article 156

b) Article 154

35. Centre-State relations are divided into how many categories? a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five

b) Three

36. Which article deals with legislative relations between Centre and States? a) Article 245 b) Article 256 c) Article 312 d) Article 280

a) Article 245

37. Concurrent List contains subjects where: a) Only Centre makes laws b) Only States make laws c) Both Centre and States make laws d) Neither

c) Both Centre and States can make laws

38. During National Emergency, powers of State Legislature are vested in: a) President b) Parliament c) Governor d) Prime Minister

b) Parliament

39. If Central and State law conflict in Concurrent List which prevails? a) State law b) Central law c) Later law d) Supreme Court

b) Central law

40. Residuary powers of legislation are vested in: a) State Legislature b) President c) Union Parliament d) State Governor

c) Union Parliament

41. Agriculture falls under which list? a) Union b) State c) Concurrent d) Residuary

b) State List

42. Finance Commission is responsible for: a) Distribution of revenue b) Borrowing limits c) Defense resources d) Monetary policy

a) Distribution of revenue between Centre and States

43. Centre can issue directions to State Government: a) Public health b) Financial emergency c) Implementing Union laws d) Appointing Governor

c) Implementing Union laws

44. Article 356 deals with: a) National Emergency b) Financial Emergency c) President's Rule d) Constitutional amendments

c) President's Rule in a State

45. Which mechanism does NOT facilitate coordination between Centre and States? a) Election Commission b) Finance Commission c) Inter-State Council d) Supreme Court

a) Election Commission

46. Cooperative federalism means: a) Minimal interaction b) Centre and States working together c) State autonomy d) Centralized control

b) Union and States work together

47. Example of cooperative federalism: a) Union List b) State List c) GST Council d) Residuary powers

c) GST Council

48. Which constitutional body facilitates cooperative federalism? a) Election Commission b) Inter-State Council c) UPSC d) National Development Council

b) Inter-State Council

49. Cooperative federalism best reflected in: a) State List b) Union List c) Concurrent List d) Residuary

c) Concurrent List

50. GST shows cooperative federalism because: a) States collect taxes alone b) Requires Union-State coordination c) Only Union implements d) No role for states

b) Requires Union and State coordination

51. Article providing Inter-State Council: a) Article 263 b) Article 280 c) Article 256 d) Article 249

a) Article 263

52. Which amendment introduced GST? a) 100th b) 101st c) 102nd d) 103rd

b) 101st Amendment

53. Which is NOT a feature of cooperative federalism? a) Collaboration b) Fiscal decentralization c) Competitive governance d) Exclusive central decisions

d) Exclusive decision-making by Centre

54. Democratic decentralisation refers to: a) Centralized power b) Decision making at lower levels c) Only state power d) Parliament elections

b) Delegation of decision-making to lower government levels

55. Amendment establishing Panchayati Raj: a) 72nd b) 73rd c) 74th d) 75th

b) 73rd Amendment

56. 74th Amendment focuses on: a) Panchayati Raj b) Municipalities c) Rural development d) Land reforms

b) Municipalities

57. Democratic decentralisation inspired by: a) American Constitution b) French system c) Gandhian philosophy d) British Parliament

c) Gandhian philosophy

58. Panchayati Raj system has how many tiers? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

c) Three

59. Key feature of democratic decentralization: a) Centralised governance b) Citizen involvement c) Strong national executive d) Appointment of representatives

b) Direct involvement of citizens

60. Who conducts Panchayati Raj elections? a) Election Commission of India b) State Election Commission c) UPSC d) NITI Aayog

b) State Election Commission

61. The Gram Sabha is an example of: a) Direct democracy at grassroots b) Legislative body c) Executive body d) Judicial institution

a) Direct democracy at the grassroots level

62. The 74th Amendment provides for formation of: a) Rural local bodies b) Urban local bodies c) Zila Parishads d) State legislatures

b) Urban local bodies

63. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments were enacted in: a) 1989 b) 1991 c) 1992 d) 1993

c) 1992

64. The 73rd Amendment mandates Panchayati Raj under which part? a) Part IX b) Part X c) Part XI d) Part XII

a) Part IX

65. Minimum age to contest Panchayati Raj elections: a) 18 b) 21 c) 25 d) 30

b) 21 years

66. Which schedule was added by the 73rd Amendment? a) Ninth b) Eleventh c) Twelfth d) Tenth

b) Eleventh Schedule

67. The 74th Amendment added which schedule? a) Eleventh b) Twelfth c) Tenth d) Ninth

b) Twelfth Schedule

68. Reservation for women in Panchayati Raj up to: a) 33% b) 25% c) 50% d) None

a) 33%

69. State Election Commission was established under: a) 42nd Amendment b) 44th Amendment c) 73rd & 74th Amendments d) 86th Amendment

c) 73rd and 74th Amendments

70. Which is NOT a feature of 74th Amendment? a) Three-tier urban system b) Reservation for SC/ST c) District Planning Committees d) Rural governance structures

d) Inclusion of rural governance structures

71. Gram Sabha is defined as: a) Body of elected representatives b) Village elders c) All registered voters of village d) Village executive committee

c) Body of all registered voters in a village

72. Obligatory function of Urban Local Bodies: a) Forest management b) Urban planning c) Rural market regulation d) Canal construction

b) Urban planning including town planning

73. Responsibility of constructing urban public roads lies with: a) State Government b) Union Government c) Urban Local Bodies d) District Collector

c) Urban Local Bodies

74. Urban Local Bodies regulate: a) Railways b) Slum improvement and poverty alleviation c) Defense installations d) Higher education

b) Slum improvement and urban poverty alleviation

75. Discretionary function of Urban Local Bodies: a) Streetlights b) Public libraries c) Water supply d) Solid waste management

b) Establishing public libraries

76. Procedure for amending Constitution is in: a) Article 356 b) Article 360 c) Article 368 d) Article 370

c) Article 368

77. Amendment requiring special majority + state ratification: a) Simple majority b) Special majority c) Special majority with state ratification d) Presidential approval

c) Special majority with state ratification

78. Which part cannot be amended under Article 368? a) Fundamental Rights b) Directive Principles c) Basic Structure d) Union-State relations

c) Basic Structure of Constitution

79. Basic Structure Doctrine established in: a) Golaknath case b) Kesavananda Bharati case c) Minerva Mills case d) Indira Gandhi case

b) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

80. Amendment by simple majority used to: a) Change state boundaries b) Amend Fundamental Rights c) Change Preamble d) Alter federal structure

a) Change boundaries of states

81. Provision amendable by simple majority: a) Election of President b) Directive Principles c) Official language use d) Fundamental Rights

c) Use of official language

82. Preamble amended by: a) 40th Amendment b) 42nd Amendment c) 44th Amendment d) 52nd Amendment

b) 42nd Amendment

83. How many types of amendment methods exist? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

c) Three

84. Who ratifies amendments requiring state approval? a) Supreme Court b) State Legislatures c) President d) Union Cabinet

b) State Legislatures

85. Which provision needs special majority + state ratification? a) Fundamental Rights b) Representation of states in Parliament c) Union List d) Directive Principles

b) Representation of states in Parliament

86. Emergency provisions amended through: a) Simple majority b) Special majority c) Special majority + ratification d) Presidential ordinance

b) Special majority in Parliament

87. Amendment adding “Socialist, Secular, Integrity”: a) 41st b) 42nd c) 44th d) 52nd

b) 42nd Amendment

88. Amendment reducing voting age to 18: a) 60th b) 61st c) 62nd d) 63rd

b) 61st Amendment

89. 101st Amendment introduced: a) GST b) Right to Education c) NJAC d) Aadhaar

a) Goods and Services Tax (GST)

90. Which article ensures amendment cannot violate Basic Structure? a) Article 32 b) Article 368 c) Article 370 d) Article 226

b) Article 368

91. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 is also known as: a) Mini Constitution b) Emergency Constitution c) Major Reform Act d) Social Justice Act

a) Mini Constitution

92. The 42nd Amendment added which three words to the Preamble? a) Socialist, Secular, Sovereign b) Socialist, Secular, Integrity c) Democratic, Republic, Unity d) Liberty, Equality, Fraternity

b) Socialist, Secular, Integrity

93. Which subjects were transferred from State List to Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment? a) Forests b) Education c) Protection of wild animals and birds d) All of the above

d) All of the above

94. Which part of the Constitution was extensively amended by the 42nd Amendment? a) Part IV b) Part III c) Both Part III and IV d) Only Preamble

a) Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy)

95. The 42nd Amendment introduced how many articles into the Constitution? a) 15 b) 10 c) 20 d) 30

b)10

96. The 42nd Amendment extended the term of Lok Sabha and State Assemblies to: a) 4 years b) 6 years c) 7 years d) 8 years

b) 6 years

97. The 44th Amendment Act was enacted to: a) Reinforce President’s powers b) Restore Fundamental Rights c) Extend Lok Sabha term d) Strengthen DPSP

b) Restore Fundamental Rights and reduce executive power

98. The 44th Amendment restored Right to Property under: a) Article 19 b) Article 21 c) Article 31 d) Article 300A

d) Article 300A

99. The 44th Amendment limits duration of Emergency proclamation to: a) 6 months b) 12 months c) 18 months d) 3 months

a) 6 months

100. Which provision was NOT changed by the 44th Amendment? a) Term of Lok Sabha b) Protection of rights during emergency c) Amendment procedure d) Duration of President’s rule

c) Process for amending the Constitution