BMS 501 Practical Study Guide

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161 Terms

1
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how do you calculate total magnification of an object being observed under a light microscope?

objective magnification (10x, 40x, 100x) X ocular magnification (10x)

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<p>orange</p>

orange

fine focus

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<p>orange</p>

orange

course focus

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<p>orange</p>

orange

coaxial stage controls

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<p>orange</p>

orange

neck

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<p>orange</p>

orange

observation tube

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<p>orange</p>

orange

eyepiece

8
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where is the ocular lens located in a microscope

in the eyepiece

9
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<p>orange</p>

orange

nosepiece

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<p>orange</p>

orange

objective lens

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<p>orange</p>

orange

stage

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<p>orange</p>

orange

condenser lens

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<p>orange</p>

orange

iris diaphragm

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<p>orange</p>

orange

light source

15
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Which is properly written?

Escherichia coli or Escherichia coli

Escherichia coli

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How do you shorten an organisms name? Use Escherichia coli as an example

E. coli

17
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simple stain

coloring cells to see shapes

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Gram stains

differentially coloring cells to see shapes and determine Gram class

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Endospore stains

differentially coloring to see if the species makes spores

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what type of cell wall do Gram-negative cells have?

thin peptidoglycan layer

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what type of cell wall do Gram-positive cells have?

thick peptidoglycan layer

22
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Staphylococci morphology

cocci in grape-like clusters

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Bacilli morphology

rods, spore-forming

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Clostridia

Rods, spore formers

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Enterobacteriaceae (E. coli, klebsiella, salmonella, shigella) morphology

rods

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mycobacteria morphology

rods, weakly gram positive

acid fast stain positive

27
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what color is Gram-negative in a gram stain

pink

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what color is Gram-positive in a gram stain

purple

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first step of gram staining

put crystal violet (primary stain) on the slide for 1 minute

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second step of gram staining

put Gram’s iodine (mordant) on the slide for 1 minute

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third step of gram staining

put acetone alcohol (decolorizer) on the slide for less than 5 seconds

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fourth step of gram staining

put safranin (Counterstain) on the slide for 1 minute

33
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why do Gram-negative bacteria result in a pink appearance in a Gram stain

because they have a thin peptidoglycan layer which allows for the decolorizer to get rid of the purple color from the crystal violet, then they get stained pink with the safranin

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why do Gram-positive bacteria show up purple in a gram stain

because they have a thick peptidoglycan layer preventing the decolorizer from ridding the cells of the purple crystal violet stain

35
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<p>what plate is this </p>

what plate is this

Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA)

36
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is Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) plates selective or differential

selective and differential

selective for Gram positive bacteria

differential for fermentation of the sugar mannitol using phenol red as an indicator

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what does a positive MSA plate look like?

phenol red (pink color) turns yellow when mannitol salt is fermented

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what does a negative MSA plate look like?

phenol red (pink color) remains red-orange in color due to the fact that mannitol sugar is not fermented

39
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<p>what plate is this</p>

what plate is this

Nutrient Agar (NA)

40
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is nutrient agar (NA) plates selective or differential

neither they allow growth of many organisms, does not exclude or distinguish

41
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<p>what plate is this?</p>

what plate is this?

Blood Agar Plate (BAP)

42
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how can you differentiate between a Blood Agar Plate (BAP) and Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) plate?

a MSA plate will appear reddish-pink and a BAP will have a darker red color

43
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are blood agar plates (BAP) selective or differential

differential only

44
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what does alpha hemolysis mean on a BAP

bacteria can partially breakdown blood

45
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<p>what result on a BAP plate is this </p>

what result on a BAP plate is this

alpha hemolysis

46
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what does beta hemolysis on a BAP mean

bacteria can completely breakdown blood

47
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<p>what result on a BAP plate is this</p>

what result on a BAP plate is this

beta hemolysis

48
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what does Gamma hemolysis on a BAP plate mean

bacteria cannot breakdown blood

49
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<p>what result on a BAP plate is this</p>

what result on a BAP plate is this

gamma hemolysis

50
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Are bile esculin slants (BES) selective or differential

selective and differential

selective for gram positive species due to bile salts

differentiates species by esculin hydrolysis

51
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<p>what result of a BES test is this</p>

what result of a BES test is this

positive

it can hydrolyze esculin

52
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<p>what result of a BES test is this</p>

what result of a BES test is this

negative

it cannot hydrolyze esculin

53
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<p>what test is this?</p>

what test is this?

Bile Esculin Slant (BES)

54
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is a catalase test selective or differential?

differential based on the bacteria’s ability to produce the enzyme catalase

55
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<p>is this catalase result positive or negative?</p>

is this catalase result positive or negative?

negative

56
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<p>is this catalase result positive or negative?</p>

is this catalase result positive or negative?

positive

57
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what does a positive catalase test result mean?

it can produce catalase

58
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does Streptococcus agalactiae grow on MSA plates

no it doesn’t grow

59
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what is aseptic technique?

methods of working free of microbial contamination

60
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why is aseptic technique important?

prevents culture/specimen contamination

prevents contamination of yourself/others/environment

61
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what does aseptic technique include

safely dispensing culture media

flame-sterilizing instruments

proper labeling, handling, and storing

practicing correct hand hygiene and workspace disinfection

62
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what is selective media

only permits the growth of certain type of bacteria

inhibits other types of bacteria in many ways including: salt content, high/low pH, antibiotics

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what is differential media

allows visually differentiation between two or more kinds of bacteria due to chemical reactions in the media

more than one type of bacteria can grow on the plate

64
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How do you properly label plates and tubes

initials/lab section/type of media/what is on it/date

65
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where do you label a plate

on the bottom, not the lid

66
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what is the first step to a quadrant streak

flame an inoculating loop, wait for it to cool, collect a loopful of the bacteria and spread it across 1/4th of the plate

67
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what is the second step of a four quadrant streak

flame the inoculating loop, wait for it to cool and then drag some bacteria from the first quadrant and streak it into another 1/4th of the plate

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what is the third step of a quadrant streak?

flame the inoculating loop and wait for it to cool, drag some bacteria from quadrant 2 and spread it onto another 1/4th of the plate

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what is the fourth step of a quadrant streak?

flame the inoculating loop, wait for it to cool and spread some bacteria from quadrant 3 into the final 1/4th of the plate and spread it

70
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acid-fast staining

stains thick, waxy lipid walls

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what does a pink mean in an acid-fast stain

acid fast positive

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what does a blue result in an acid-fast stain mean

counterstained aka negative

73
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diagnosis and treatment of Candida

microscopic analysis of vaginal discharge reveals budding yeast or yeast in hyphal form

yeast can also be identified by culture methods

first-line treatments: antifungal azole drugs

74
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how many tapeworms infect humans

6 tapeworms

ex: Taenia saginata from beef and Diphyllobothrium latum from fish

75
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Bill Nye discovered a new bacterial species that he named named Sciencius guyus!  After growing a culture overnight at 37°C, he spread 3 CFU plates, 100uL on each. The 10-3 plate has 3149 colonies; the 10-4 plate has 229 colonies; the 10-5 plate has 15 colonies. What is the CFU/mL of the culture?

2.29 × 107 CFU/mL

76
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An E. coli outbreak was traced by epidemiologists back to a batch of infected lettuce.  Approximately 20,000 heads of lettuce had been sold from the crop, and there were 127 reported illnesses and 6 reported deaths.  Laboratory testing on the lettuce revealed an average number of 50 cells of E. coli bacteria present on a given plant.  Approximate the ID50 and LD50 of the E. coli strain, assuming each head of lettuce was eaten by 1 person. Use Scientific notation

ID50 = 3.9 x 103 cells

LD50 = 8.3 x 104 cells

ID50: 10,000 (half of population)/127 (amount of people sick) = 78.74 × 50 (amount of cells) = 3,937 cells = 3.9 × 103 cells

LD50: 10,000 (half of population)/6 (amount of people dead) = 1,666.66 × 50 (amount of cells) = 83,333 cells = 8.3 x 104 cells

77
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how are O2 requirements tested

thioglycolate tubes

78
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obligate aerobe

needs oxygen to live, breaks down sugars using it

absolute dependence on oxygen use in metabolism

can effectively manage reactive oxygen species

<p>needs oxygen to live, breaks down sugars using it</p><p>absolute dependence on oxygen use in metabolism</p><p>can effectively manage reactive oxygen species</p>
79
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obligate anaerobe

dies in presence of oxygen (doesn’t use it, can’t detoxify it)

has no dependence on oxygen use in metabolism → not used

cannot effectively manage reactive oxygen species

<p>dies in presence of oxygen (doesn’t use it, can’t detoxify it)</p><p>has no dependence on oxygen use in metabolism → not used</p><p>cannot effectively manage reactive oxygen species</p>
80
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microaerophile

can only stand oxygen in low concentrations

uses small amounts of oxygen in metabolism

can effectively manage reactive oxygen species but only in small amounts

<p>can only stand oxygen in low concentrations</p><p>uses small amounts of oxygen in metabolism</p><p>can effectively manage reactive oxygen species but only in small amounts</p>
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aerotolerant anaerobe

doesn’t use oxygen, but doesn’t die when exposed to it (Can detoxify it!)

oxygen is not used in metabolism, but can live in the presence of it

can effectively manage reactive oxygen species

<p>doesn’t use oxygen, but doesn’t die when exposed to it (Can detoxify it!)</p><p>oxygen is not used in metabolism, but can live in the presence of it</p><p>can effectively manage reactive oxygen species</p>
82
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facultative anaerobe

prefers oxygen, but can do anaerobic respiration and detoxify oxygen when needed

prefers using oxygen for metabolism but can survive without it

can effectively manage reactive oxygen species

<p>prefers oxygen, but can do anaerobic respiration and detoxify oxygen when needed</p><p>prefers using oxygen for metabolism but can survive without it</p><p>can effectively manage reactive oxygen species</p>
83
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where does Bordetella pertussis infect

lungs

whooping cough

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where does mycobacterium tuberculosis infect

lungs

85
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where does mycoplasma pneumoniae infect

lungs

86
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what are common ventilator-associated pneumonias

Acinetobacter baumannii, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and MRSA

87
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where does Borrelia burgdorferi infect

blood and lymph

lyme disease

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where does Treponema pallidum infect

blood and lymph

syphilis

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where does Yersinia pestis infect

blood and lymph

plague

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where does Staphylococcus aureus infect

skin

staph infections → wound infection, scalded skin syndrome, CAUTIs, pneumonia, sepsis

91
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where does Propionibacterium acnes infect

skin

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where does Helicobacter pylori infect

stomach

ulcers

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where does Clostridioides difficile infect

large intestine

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where does Salmonella species infect

large intestine

95
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extreme thermophiles

grow in 65-120 degrees C

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thermophiles

grow in 40-75 degrees C

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mesophiles

grow in 10-50 degrees C

human body temperature

98
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psychrotrophs

grow in 0 to 30 degrees C

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psychrophiles

grow in -20 to 10 degrees C

100
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Are Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) slants selective or differential

differential based on ability to ferment lactose, sucrose and glucose