Pharm Exam Four

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90 Terms

1
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What should you teach a patient about omeprazole?

not take aluminum hydroxide within an hour of taking it

2
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The patient with GERD had minimal relief with cimetidine. Omeprazole was started instead. What should the nurse share?

Long term therapy may be needed

3
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A patient is taking warfarin and PPI omeprazole concurrently. The nurse should anticipate what?

Warfarin effects to be increased, dt/INR will be elevated, and there is an increased risk of bleeding

4
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A patient stops their omeprazole after 6 weeks due to a foul smelling diarrhea and weakness. What should the nurse tell the patient?

Contact your primary care provider to be tested for Clostridium difficile (C. diff)

5
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What does sucralfate do?

treatment of peptic ulcer by acting as a barrier to gastric secretions

6
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What are medication administrations of sucralfate?

give 1-2 hors before meals

7
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What is the prepared route of administration for promethazine? What is it never given as?

oral preparation, never given as SQ

8
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What drug family is the first line of treatment of post-op nausea and vomiting?

SETRON family

9
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How does metoclopramide work?

accelerating gastric emptying

10
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What can metoclopramide cause?

tardive dyskinesia with involuntary and abnormal facial movements

11
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What are the two common side effects of ondansetron?

headache and dizziness

12
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What type of laxative is psyllium?

bulk laxative

13
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What is the action of psyllium?

bulks up mass and water content of stool

14
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What is psyllium used for?

constipation

15
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How should you administer psyllium?

with a full glass of water

16
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What type of laxative is bisacodyl?

stimulant laxative

17
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What can occur as a result from bisacodyl or other stimulant laxatives?

dependency, fluid and electrolyte imbalances, and incontinence

18
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What two medications are used as a bowel prep for a procedure like a colonoscopy?

-Polyethylene glycol/Golytely

-Magnesium citrate

19
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What should the patient be taught in terms of medication administration of bulk forming laxatives?

take each dose with a full glass of water

20
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What laxative is most likely prescribed to decrease straining for a postpartum client with a laceration from childbirth?

stool softener

21
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What type of laxative is Lactulose?

osmotic laxative

22
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Lactulose is a laxative but it also can do what? Who is it used for?

-decrease ammonia levels and are used for hepatic encephalopathy

23
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What antidiarrheal medication has few adverse effects? Why?

Loperamide because it does not cross the BBB

24
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What is a bismuth subsalicylate commonly known as and what are two common adverse reactions of bismuth subsalicylate that should be taught to the patient?

pepto bismol that can turn your tongue and bowel movements black

25
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What is alosetron used for?

diarrhea

26
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What are serious adverse effects of alosetron?

ischemic colitis and bowel obstructions that cause hospitilization or death

27
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What is bismuth subsalicylate used to treat?

diarrhea

28
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What must be assessed before giving bismuth subsalicylate to a patient?

allergy to aspirin

29
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What medication is known to cause a diabetic's blood sugar to rise?

Prednisone (Deltasone)

30
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How should insulin be administered to a patient with type 1 DM for life?

Mix NPH and regular insulin in 1 syringe

31
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What antidiabetic drug is a rapid acting drug?

repaglinide/Prandin

32
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When should repaglinide/Prandin be given?

no more than 30 minutes before meals

33
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What is metformin used for?

diabetes

34
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What are contraindications of metformin/Glucophage?

older adults, IV contrast, and high serum lactate levels

35
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How does pramlintide/Symlin decrease blood sugar levels and how should it be administered?

Administered SQ with a meal immediately after in order to slow gastric empyting

36
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How does Acarbose work?

delays complex carb digestion

37
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What symptoms does Acarbose cause?

gross GI symptoms

38
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When should Acarbose be given?

with the first bite of a meal

39
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If 15 grams of carb are given for hypoglycemia, what symptoms happen at the insulin's peak action?

clammy and shakey

40
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What is monitored when a patient is taking rosiglitazone/Avandia?

weight gain, crackles, and edema

41
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What is contraindicated for rosiglitazone/Avandia?

patients with CHF

42
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What cardiac medications can mask symptoms of hypoglycemia?

beta blockers

43
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What is a very important teaching point to a newly diagnosed type 1 diabetic receiving insulin injections?

rotate injection sites preventing complications and inadequate absorption

44
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What type of drug is glyburide?

sulfonylureas

45
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What should be avoided when taking sulfonylureas' like glyburide and why?

alcohol because a disulfiram like reaction can occur

46
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When is glargine given and why?

once daily, at the same time every day to maintain insulin throughout the day

47
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What type of insulin is Insulin R?

short acting

48
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What is Insulin R given for?

extremely high glucose due to diabetic ketoacidosis

49
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What can insulin R be mixed with?

insuline NPH (Humulin N)

50
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What medication releases insulin evenly throughout the day?

glargine (Lantus)

51
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What is route of administration for glargine (Lantus)? Why?

SQ injection because stomach acid would destroy the PO insulin

52
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What is the correct way to mix intermediate acting insulin NPH with regular insulin?

push air into NPH vial, then push air into regular vial, then draw up regular insulin, then draw up NPH insulin

53
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What type of sliding scale insulin is given for a high fasting glucose level?

Lispro

54
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What is Levothyroxine? What is it commonly prescribed for? What type of patients is it given to?

Medication that is commonly used to treat hypothyroidism, and given to patients who have taken sodium iodine131 or had a thyroidectomy

55
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What is a medication administration consideration for Levothyroxine?

do not take with food

56
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What drug is used to destroy the thyroid gland?

Sodium iodine131 because it is radioactive

57
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What medication is the best option for a pregnancy in the 1st trimester before a thyroidectomy?

Propylthiouracil

58
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When should PO Propylthiouracil be given?

every 8 hours

59
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When is levothyroxine given and why?

In the morning to prevent insomnia

60
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What medication is given to a patient with Graves disease for radioactive sodium iodine131 post treatment?

Levothyroxine

61
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What is Desmopressin used for?

diabetes insipidus

62
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What can desmopressin cause? Why?

electrolyte imbalance, such as hyponatremia, due to decreasing urine output

63
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What criterion must be met for a child prescribed somatotropin? Why?

the child must have not begun puberty because long bones are still open

64
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What is the regulatory function of desmopressin/DDAVP?

water balance

65
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What adverse effect from taking alendronate should be reported immediately?

difficulty swallowing

66
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What does calcitonin help treat?

osteoporosis

67
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What is the ROA for calcitonin? What type of patient usually takes it his way?

intranasally, usually postmenopausal women

68
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What does calcium citrate help treat?

osteoporosis

69
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What is the ROA for calcium citrate?

PO

70
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What vitamin can help with osteoporosis?

vitamin D

71
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Why should the nurse reinforce correct administration of alendronate?

reduces risk of esophageal bleeding

72
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What is teriparatide used for? What is its ROA?

osteoporosis used in a Pen SQ

73
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How long is each pen of teriparatide stable for?

28 days

74
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What is unique about teriparatide in terms of osteoporosis medications?

only drug that increases new bone formation

75
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What should be taught to patients taking bisphosphonates like the dronate family?

Take in the morning on an empty stomach with a full glass of water and sit upright for 30 mins after taking

76
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What medication is used to treat myasthenia gravis? What does this medications family class do for patients with myasthenia gravis?

pyridostigmine/Mestinon increases skeletal muscle tone and strength

77
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Why is a sustained release Stigmine family drug be taking at night?

allows the patient with myasthenia gravis to awaken with the ability to swallow

78
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What crisis can pyridostigmine cause?

cholinergic crisis

79
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What is given to a patient experiencing a cholinergic crisis/what is the antidote to pyridostigmine?

atropine

80
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How is transdermal donepezil used?

Put the patch on for 7 days, take it off, clean and dry site and then do not use that site for 14 days

81
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What should be avoided and taught to the patient about transdermal donepezil pathces?

do not place patch on reddened, irritated, or opened skin

82
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What medication is used if donepezil is not as effective as it once was?

memantine

83
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What does memantine do?

decreases glutamate

84
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What serious adverse effect is related to memantine?

increase seizure acitivty

85
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What is the first line drug for Alzheimer's?

Donepezil

86
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How/when should donepezil be given?

once daily at bedtime

87
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What two things interfere with the absorption of carbidopa levodopa?

high protein diets and iron supplements

88
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How long does it take carbidopa levodopa to work?

3 weeks to decrease symptoms

89
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What 2 things can carbidopa levodopa cause in a patient?

a drop in BP with position change and darkened bodily fluids

90
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What drug cause orange urine, risky gambling, and sleep attacks?

ropinirole/Requip