IAHSS Advanced Officer Certification | 205 Questions and answers | 2025 latest updated version | PASS GUARANTEE

What is the primary role of a security officer in crime prevention?

a. Reduce the desire for a person to committ a crime.

b. Patrol all assigned areas dilligently.

c. Reduce the opportunity for a person to committ a crime.

d. None of these

c. Reduce the opportunity for a person to committ a crime.

Crime prevention is the anticipation, recognition, and appraisal of a crime risk. It also involves what?

a. Initiating some action to remove or reduce the risk.

b. Reporting the risk to law enforcement authorities.

c. Documenting the risk to the administration.

d. Each of the above.

a. Initiating some action to remove or reduce the risk.

What must be done about life safety deficiencies found in the hazzard surveillance tour?

a. Report them to the nearest medical personnel.

b. Correct them before the next safety committee meeting.

c. Report them to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration.

d. Correct them immediately.

d. Correct them immediately.

What is the purpose of crime analysis?

a. Identify problems and develop strategies to reduce problems.

b. Assist law enforcement in identifying known criminals.

c. Solve crimes and make arrests.

d. None of the above.

a. Identify problems and develop strategies to reduce problems.

Which of the following is easier and more cost effective for an institution?

a. Allowing outside organizations to conduct safety training.

b. Installing access controls only on exterior doors.

c. Using off-duty law enforcement officers instead of security officers.

d. Building in security systems during building design.

d. Building in security systems during building design.

The Triangle of Crime consists of:

a. Opportunity, Unattended Items, Desire

b. Ability, Opportunity, Randon Access

c. Opportunity, Desire, Ability

d. Access, Desire, Opportunity

c. Opportunity, Desire, Ability

What are the layers of protection through physical security planning?

* Perimeter Barrior: line or outside perimeter of the site

* Building's Exterior: top, sides, bottom of building

* Interior Controls: lock/key systems, access control systems,

alarms, camera, policies/procedures, training

How can employee awareness programs improve safety in a healthcare facility?

* Generates employee involvement

* Improves trust/credibility in the security program and it's

personnel

What are the two most important aspects of a successful security program?

a. Assist law enforcement and identifying known criminals

b. Patrol and crime prevention

c. Crime prevention and risk assessment

d. Security awareness and crime prevention

d. Security awareness and crime prevention

Why is crime analysis important?

It helps security monitor the level and types of crime and seasonal fluctuations.

How does environmental design promote a safer environment?

Design areas with:

CPTED

Clear sight lines

Appropriate lighting

Unambiguous sinage

Sprinkler heads must not have any obstruction or storage within _____ inches of the sprinkler head:

a. 12

b. 16

c. 18

d. 20

c. 18

What agency requires Hazard Surveillance Rounds?

a. Occupational Safety Health Association (OSHA)

b. The Joint Commission (TJC)

c. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

d. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

b. The Joint Commission

What are the two categories of safety and securities inspections?

a. Surveillance surveys and security surveys

b. Hazard inspections and security rounds

c. Hazard surveillance rounds and security surveys

d. Surveillance rounds and hazard surveillance surveys

c. Hazard surveillance rounds and security surveys

Hazard Surveillance Round inspections are reported to:

a. Occupational Safety Health Association (OSHA)

b. The Supervisor of the facility

c. The Joint Commission (TJC)

d. The safety committee of the healthcare organization

d. The safety committee of the healthcare organization

Patient care buildings and satellite health centers require Hazard Surveillance Round inspections:

a. Once per year

b. Twice per year

c. Every two years

d. Every three years

c. Twice per year

Non-patient care buildings and exterior grounds require Hazard Surveillance Round inspections:

a. Once per year

b. Twice per year

c. Every two years

d. None of the above

a. Once per year

The five-step approach to crime analysis is:

a. Gather, Collate, Analyze, Separate, Evaluate feedback

b. Collect, Collate, Analyze, Disseminate, Gather/Evaluate feedback

c. Collect, Evaluate, Collate, Disseminate, Gather feedback

d.Collect, Collate, Analyze, Gather/Evaluate feedback

b. Collect, Collate, Analyze, Disseminate, Gather/Evaluate feedback

Crime analysis data reports should be presented to the institutional safety committee how often?

a. Quarterly

b. Bi-Annually

c. Annually

d. Never

a. Quarterly

Healthcare facilities that provide _______ customer service motivate customers to tell others about these organizations.

a. Respectful

b. Adequate

c. Knowledgeable

d. Excellent

d. Excellent

Process improvements in customer service can be measured how?

a. Surveys

b. Monitoring performance

c. Benchmarking

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

_______ can be an excellent way to measure customer service and improve performance:

a. Surveys

b. Feedback

c. Employee complaints

d. Phone call monitoring

b. Feedback

______ is an element in improving customer service:

a. Identifying customers

b. Attitude

c. Communication

d. Training

e. All of the above

e. All of the above

Communication is ________________:

a. 93% body language, 7% words

b. 50% non-verbal, 50% verbal

c. 80% verbal, 20% gesture

d. 75% verbal, 20% gestures and tone of voice

a. 93% body language, 7% words

Customer retention is __________ times less expensive than attracting new customers.

a. 2 to 3

b. 5 to 6

c. 7 to 9

d. 10 to 12

b. 5 to 6

Satisfied customers on average tell _________ other people about their positive experience at a healthcare facility.

a. 1 to 2

b. 2 to 3

c. 4 to 5

d. 6 to 7

c. 4 to 5

How many healthcare organizations have earned the Planetree organization's designation as a 'patient-centered hospital'?

a. Less than 100

b. Less than 115

c. More than 125

d. More than 200

c. more than 125

What are the four elements of the "Fish" philosophy?

1. Choose your attitude

2. Play

3. Make Their day

4. Be present, be there

The acronym HEART expresses what:

Honesty

Empathetic

Appreciative

Respectful

Tolerant

Research reveals that consumers make buying decisions based on:

a. 70% service / 30% product

b. 80% service / 20% product

c. 90% sevice / 10% product

d. 95% sevice / 5% product

c. 90% sevice / 10% product

_____ % of customers stop doing business with an company because they are dissatisifed with the product or service.

a. 10 %

b. 14%

c. 23%

d. 31%

b. 14%

______ % of customers leave because of an attitude of indifference on the part of the service provider.

a. 25%

b. 50%

c. 68%

d. 75%

c. 68%

What determines whether a customer is satisfied or not?

a. A customer that is visably pleased

b. A customers perception of having needs met

c. A customers who has had his questions answered

d. A customer feeling good

b. A customers perception of having needs met

Key traits security officers should have (7):

Emotional awareness; concern; Problem solving; Initiative; responsibility; Explaining, and informing

What is the most powerful booster of customer service improvement?

a. Surveys

b. Evaluations

c. Benchmarking

d. Feedback

d. Feedback

Which legal test takes into account neighborhood crime rates, industry standards, and the owner's experience at other locations?

a. Forseeability

b. Neglience

c. Totality of circumstances

d. Duty to invitees

c. Totality of circumstances

The major source of premise liability in healthcare is from:

a. Poor lighting

b. Slips and falls

c. Fire hazards

d. Assaults

b. Slips and falls

Property owners have a ________ duty to maintain the property in a ___________ condition.

a. Legal / reasonably safe

b. Moral / reasonably safe

c. Legal / completely safe

d. Moral / completely safe

a. Legal / reasonably safe

Which of the following are elements necessary to establish neglience in a premise liability case?

a. Duty to the plaintiff

b. Failure to meet the duty

c. Breech of a duty caused an injury

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following are examples of risks security officers should identify?

a. Burned out lights

b. Breached fence lines

c. Slip and fall hazards

d. All of the above

e. A and C only

d. All of the above

What is the definition of premise liability?

Refers to the legal responsibility a property owner/organization owes to persons/individuals on their property.

What are the four elements of neglience:

1. Legal duty

2. Breech of duty

3. Proximate cause

4. Damages or injury

What is Legal Duty

The responsibility to others to act according to the law. Proving the duty (such as not to be negligent, to keep premises safe, or to drive within the speed limit). Then showing that the duty was breached is a required elements of any lawsuit for damages due to negligence or intentional injuries - Did the property owner have a legal obligation to the claimant?

What is Breech of Duty

When one person or company has a duty of care toward another person or company, but fails to live up to that standard.

What is Proximate Cause

In order for an action to be the proximate cause of an injury, it must be related closely enough through the chain of causation that the act is considered the sufficient cause of the harm. The most common test for determining if an action is sufficiently related to an injury to satisfy proximate cause is whether or not the injury was foreseeable by the person committing the action. - Did the failure to provide the duty cause harm?

Damages or Injury

Were the damages or injury forseeable or apparant?

What is CPTED - Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (3)

Promotes a clear line of sight

Created perception of safety

Makes criminals feel detected

Define: Broken Windows

Theory: Signs of neglect, ie: broken windows and/or graffiti on buildings indicate no one cares about the area and is not watching it - it invites crime.

Failure to conduct routine patrol can ultimately result in what?

a. An increase in security spending

b. An increase in the organization's revenue

c. A liability exposure

d. Both A and C

c. A liability exposure

K-9 patrol teams can be particularly effective in dealing with which situation?

a. Restraining a patient

b. Emergency department violence

c. Patrolling patient floors

d. Children who are upset

b. Emergency department violence

Bicycle patrol is which one of these?

a. Faster than foot patrol and a vehicle in heavy traffic

b. Faster than foot patrol, but slower than a vehicle in heavy traffic

c. The safest method of patrol

d. The slowest method of patrol

a. Faster than foot patrol and a vehicle in heavy traffic

_______ patrol contributes, more than any other method of patrol, to excessive socialization.

a. Bicycle

b. Foot

c. K-9

d. Vehicle

b. Foot

Security Officers should have a valid driver's license if they are going to do what?

a. Operate motorized vehicles

b. Conduct vehicle patrols on client property

c. Transport authorized personnel

d. All of the above

a. Operate motorized vehicles

What are the common methods of patrol?

Foot

K-9

Bicycle

Motorized

A dog's sense of smell is _______ times better and hearing is _______ times better than a human's.

a. 100 / 50

b. 250 / 35

c. 400 / 20

d. 500 / 45

c. 400 / 20

A security officer responding to a crime scene should do what?

a. Disregard his safety and arrive as soon as possible

b. Respond as quickly as possible, observing all safety practices

c. Wait for at lease one officer to provide backup

d. None of the above

b. Respond as quickly as possible, observing all safety practices

After arriving at a crime scene, what should the security officer do first?

a. Protect the scene from contamination

b. Protect his personal safety

c. Render aid to those injured

d. Question any suspects or witnesses

b. Protect his personal safety

Which if these is an example of factual evidence?

a. Eyewitness testimony

b. Circumstantial evidence

c. Physical evidence

d. None of the above

c. Physical evidence

Which of these should an officer follow to be able to testify that the evidence presented has merit?

a. Proper medical staff direction

b. Proper safety procedures

c. Proper confidentiality procedures

d. Proper chain of custody

d. Proper chain of custody

Why are initial information gathering and proper note-taking key to a successful investigation?

a. They memorialize information gathered at the scene from those involved

b. They refresh your memory for later report writing purposes

c. They are subject to discovery by the defense in a criminal case and thus can be supoenaed

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

When dealing with a personal-gain informant, what should the officer do?

a. Document the officer's interaction with the informant

b. Let the informant run the show

c. Become personally involved with the informant

d. Make promises to the informant that cannot be kept

a. Document the officer's interaction with the informant

Which of the following is NOT a recommended guideline when an outside agency conducts an undercover investigation?

a. Insist that no person be submitted to entrapment

b. Require daily reports

c. Insist that no laws or policies ever be broken

d. Insist that all security department staff receive operational information

d. Insist that all security department staff receive operational information

Before using any covert monitoring devices, the officer should do what?

a. Notify the information system department

b. Notify the engineering department

c. Submit a covert investigation request to the human resources department

d. Review applicable state and federal laws

d. Review applicable state and federal laws

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a covert or undercover operations protocol?

a. Strict, clear, and concise

b. Clearly spells out when covert operations can be performed

c. Formulated as an ongoing process

d. Has safeguards in place to prevent improper behavior

c. Formulated as an ongoing process

When arriving at a crime scene, which order should issues be addressed?

a. Protect the scene, protect yourself, render aid

b. Render aid, protect the scene, protect yourself

c. Protect yourself, protect the scene, render aid

d. Protect yourself, render aid, protect the scene

d. Protect yourself, render aid, protect the scene

What is an informant?

ANY person that provides information to some sort of authority to help with or identify a wrong (LE, SO, private agency, etc.)

What are the three types of informants?

1. Concerned citizen

2. Public domain source (newspaper, TV, radio, court records, criminal history report)

3. "For personal gain" informant

What approach should be followed to determine appropriate protective measures and security and safety practices for off-campus facilities?

a. The off-campus facility administrator decides

b. Security inspections and risk assessments

c. A qualified security professional decides

d. The healthcare administrator decides

b. Security inspections and risk assessments

What are three types of security-sensitive facilities that can be located off campus?

a. Laundry services, human resources, and senior administration offices

b. Research facilities, abortion facilities, and daycare centers

c. Centralized information technology/information services, patient record storage, and home healthcare worker services and programs

d. Business services, laundry services, and information services

c. Centralized information technology/information services, patient record storage, and home healthcare worker services and programs

What are four of the most important protective measures and security and safety practices for off-campus facilities?

a. Ensure personal safety, duress alarms, violence training, and access control systems are in place

b. Ensures employees drive safely, test their security equipment, report security incidents, and know when they are in high crime neighborhoods

c. Ensure there are appropriate security policies and training, personnel and security systems in place for employees, and security officers working the off-campus locations

d. Ensure security policies and personnel are in place, duress alarms are installed and operational and employees know how to use them, and employees report security incidents

...

What are three ways off-campus workers can communicate security emergencies?

a. Two-way radios, e-mails, and internet

b. Voice-activated radios, e-mails, and internet

c. Duress alarms, lone-worker devices, and blue alarm lights

d. Cell phones, overhead paging systems, and pagers

c. Duress alarms, lone-worker devices, and blue alarm lights

Which of the following are part of the security officer's role in providing security services and protective measures at off-campus locations?

a. Conduct the security risk assessments to determine what security protections are required at off-campus facilities

b. Only respond to emergency calls for assistance

c. Be alert to, identify, and report specific situations that encourage or make crime more likely at off-campus facilities

d. A and C

c. Be alert to, identify, and report specific situations that encourage or make crime more likely at off-campus facilities

The two types of off-campus facilities

1. Ancillary services and support units

2. Facilities with security sensitive areas

Departments that provide clinical support are called:

Ancillary services

Departments that provide non-clinical support are called:

Support units

Types of ancillary and support units (7):

HR, Payroll, Admin/executive offices, laundry, logistics, daycares, hospice

Types of security sensitive facilities located off-campus (8):

Central IT/IS, Patient records, abortion, labs/research, home healthcare/hospice, outreach home care, clinics, pharmacies

Which area poses one of the greatest risks of crime to staff and visitors?

a. Main enterance

b. Parking areas

c. ER room

d. HR office

b. Parking areas

The National Crime Victimization Survey indicates that violent and property crime rates have _________ since 1995.

a. Increased drastically

b. Decreased significantly

c. Increased slightly

d. Remained the same

b. Decreased significantly

In 2004, _________ million incidents of violent and property crimes were been recorded.

a. 15

b. 24

c. 30

d. 41

b. 24

Workplace violence is defined as any behavior in a work environment that a reasonable person finds what?

a. Intimidating

b. Threatening

c. Violent

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

The Federal Bureau of Investigation characterizes workplace violence into how many broad types?

a. Four

b. Five

c. Three

d. Two

a. Four

Which of the following is not an example of abusive behavior?

a. Verbal abuse

b. Harassing communications

c. Simple assault

d. Threats

c. Simple assault

According to the Employment Law Alliance study conducted in 2007, how many workers have been victims of abuse at work?

a. Nearly a third

b. Nearly a half

c. Nearly two thirds

d. Almost all

b. Nearly a half

Fill in the blank: Violence is the _______ leading cause of death in the workplace.

a. Sixth

b. Third

c. First

d. Fourth

b. Third

According to the FBI, what are the four broad types of workplace violence?

Criminal acts

Customer/Client/Patient violence

Worker-on-Worker violence

Violence steming from a personal relationship

Define workplace violence:

Any behavior that creates a work environment that a reasonable person would find intimidating, threatening, violent, or abusive, regardless of whether the behavior may affect a person's psychological or physical well-being.

Between 1995 and 2010, hospital and healthcare facilities experienced ______ assaults, rapes, or homicides / _____ occurring since 2007.

a. 172 / 50

b. 265 / 110

c. 295 / 75

d. 325 / 200

b. 265 / 110

The US Department of Labor reports that nearly _______ million American workers report having been victims of workplace violence each year.

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

b. 2

In 1996 what organization introduced "Healthcare Guidelines for Preventing Workplace Violence for Healthcare and Social Service Workers?

a. DHS

b. NFPA

c. TJC

d. OSHA

d. OSHA

The five elements of a workplace violence prevention program:

1. Management commitment & employee involvement

2. Detailed worksite analysis

3. Hazard prevention & control process

4. Safety & health training

5. Proper recordkeeping & program evaluation

What is critical for the success of the workplace violence prevention program?

a. Worksite analysis, proper documentation, recordkeeping

b. Proper documentation, recordkeeping, annual program evaluation

c. Proper documentation, annual program evaluation, safety & health training

d. Worksite analysis, Hazard prevention, annual program evaluation

b. Proper documentation, recordkeeping, annual program evaluation

Sentinel Event Alert Issue 54: Preventing Workplace Violence in the Healthcare Setting.

By The Joint Commission, deals specifically with assaults, rape, and homicide and suggests healthcare institutions take actions to prevent workplace violence.

Environment of Care Standards

by the Joint Commission - requires healthcare facilities to address and maintain a written plan describing how an institution provides for the security of patients, staff, and visitors.

ASIS International notes three ways to minimize risks for workplace violence:

1. Workplace design

2. Employee training

3. Policies, practices, and procedures

A forensic patient's criminal record should be disclosed to whom?

a. All employees

b. Kept confidential

c. All employees and patients

d. Security personnel only

b. Kept confidential

What organization provides training and education on preventing infant abduction?

a. The Joint Commission

b. Federal Emergency Management Agency

c. National Fire Protection Associaton

d. National Center for Missing and Exploited Children

d. National Center for Missing and Exploited Children

Who should talk to the media about VIPs in your facility?

a. The security manager

b. Public relations or administrative personnel

c. The VIP's nurse

d. The admissions clerk

b. Public relations or administrative personnel

Homeless individuals who take shelter in your facility may commit what crime?

a. Assault

b. Theft

c. Homicide

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Individuals with Munchausen Syndrome may do what?

a. Have clear medical records

b. Seek healthcare for serious illness only

c. Refuse medical treatment

d. Have a predictable relapse and unclear symptoms

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