Advanced Human Anatomy and Physiology I - Study Guide Exam 1

A comprehensive set of practice flashcards for reviewing key concepts in Advanced Human Anatomy and Physiology I, encompassing definitions, differences, functions, and processes necessary for mastering the subject material.

What is osmotic pressure?

The pressure required to prevent the flow of water across a semipermeable membrane due to osmosis.

How do you calculate the osmolarity of a solution?

Osmolarity is calculated by multiplying the molarity of each solute by the number of particles it dissociates into.

What are electrical gradients?

Differences in electrical charge across a membrane that influence the movement of ions.

Define chemical gradients.

Concentration differences of a substance across a membrane that drive diffusion.

What is equilibrium potential?

The membrane potential at which the electrical gradient and chemical gradient for an ion are balanced.

List factors that affect the rate of diffusion.

Size of the molecules, temperature, medium of diffusion, concentration gradient, and surface area.

What is the difference between isotonic and iso-osmotic solutions?

Isotonic solutions have equal solute concentration, while iso-osmotic solutions have equal osmotic pressure but can differ in solute types.

Define simple diffusion.

Process by which molecules pass through a membrane without the aid of intermediaries.

What is facilitated diffusion?

Movement of molecules across a membrane via specific transport proteins without energy expenditure.

What distinguishes primary active transport from secondary active transport?

Primary active transport uses ATP directly while secondary active transport uses energy derived from the electrochemical gradient.

Name a method to calculate osmotic pressure from solution concentration.

Use the formula π = iCRT, where π = osmotic pressure, i = van 't Hoff factor, C = molarity, and R = ideal gas constant.

What is endocytosis?

The process by which cells engulf external substances, bringing them into the cell.

What is exocytosis?

The process of vesicles fusing with the plasma membrane to release their contents outside the cell.

What is transcytosis?

A combination of endocytosis and exocytosis, allowing substances to cross a cell layer.

Which epithelial membrane covers internal organs?

The visceral serosa membrane made of simple squamous epithelium.

What are the major components of the dorsal cavity?

The cranial cavity and the vertebral (spinal) cavity.

What organs are located in the ventral cavity?

The thoracic and abdominopelvic organs such as the lungs, heart, stomach, and intestines.

Define sagittal section.

A cut that divides the body into right and left parts.

Differentiate medial and lateral terms.

Medial refers to being closer to the midline while lateral refers to being further away from the midline.

What is a superior position?

A position that is above another part of the body.

Define inferior position.

A position that is below another part of the body.

What is the anatomical position?

Standing upright, facing forward, arms at the sides, and palms facing forward.

How are the regions of the abdominopelvic cavity divided?

Into four quadrants: right upper, right lower, left upper, left lower.

What occurs when hypertonic saline is infused into a patient?

It can cause cellular dehydration and potentially lead to cell shrinkage.

What is the structure and function of the ventral cavity membranes?

They produce serous fluid to reduce friction between organs.

How are epithelial tissues classified?

Based on cell shape (squamous, cuboidal, columnar) and number of layers (simple or stratified).

What are the four primary types of tissues in the body?

Epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous tissues.

List the embryonic layers and the tissues derived from each.

Ectoderm: nervous tissue and skin; mesoderm: muscle and connective tissue; endoderm: lining of gastrointestinal tract.

Name the three types of cartilage.

Hyaline, elastic, and fibrous cartilage.

What distinguishes merocrine secretion?

Merocrine glands secrete substances via vesicles without damaging the gland cells.

Compare apocrine secretion with holocrine secretion.

Apocrine glands lose part of their cell during secretion, while holocrine glands rupture completely.

What type of cell junctions are gap junctions?

Intercellular connections that allow ions and small molecules to pass between adjacent cells.

Describe desmosomes.

Cell structures specialized for cell adhesion, providing strength and stability.

What is hypertrophy?

An increase in the size of cells, resulting in an increase in the size of the tissue or organ.

Define atrophy.

A decrease in cell size and function due to disuse or lack of stimulation.

What is metaplasia?

The reversible transformation of one differentiated cell type to another.

Define dysplasia.

Abnormal growth or development of cells or tissues.

What is hyperplasia?

An increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ.

Differentiate between smooth muscle and striated muscle.

Smooth muscle is involuntary and non-striated; striated muscle (skeletal and cardiac) is voluntary and has striations.

What are the characteristics of connective tissue?

Made up of cells, fibers, and a matrix; provides support, bind other tissues, and store nutrients.

How are exocrine glands classified?

Based on their method of secretion (merocrine, apocrine, holocrine) and structure (simple, compound).

What are tumor markers?

Substances produced by the body or tumor cells that indicate the presence of cancer.

Define necrosis.

The unregulated death of cells caused by injury or disease.

What distinguishes gangrene?

A type of tissue necrosis characterized by infection and putrefaction.

What are the layers of the epidermis?

Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale.

What is the primary function of the dermis?

Provides structural support, houses blood vessels, and contains sensory receptors.

Identify the function of Meissner's corpuscles.

Sensitive to light touch.

What do Pacinian corpuscles detect?

Deep pressure and vibration.

Identify the function of melanocytes.

Produce melanin, which protects against UV radiation.

What is the role of dendritic cells in the skin?

Part of the immune response, detecting pathogens.

Compare eccrine and apocrine sweat glands.

Eccrine glands regulate temperature via water secretion, while apocrine glands are associated with hair follicles and secrete odorless sweat.

What happens in the skin during pallor?

Vasoconstriction leading to reduced blood flow and a pale appearance.

Describe erythema.

Reddening of the skin due to increased blood flow.

What does jaundice indicate?

Increased bilirubin levels, indicating liver dysfunction.

What is cyanosis?

Bluish discoloration of the skin due to low oxygen saturation.

What characterizes bruising?

Damage to blood vessels leading to localized bleeding under the skin.

What are the characteristics of basal cell carcinoma?

Most common skin cancer, characterized by slow growth and often appears as a pearly bump.

Identify types of skin cancer derived from squamous cells.

Squamous cell carcinoma, a cancer arising from the outer layer of skin.

What defines melanoma?

A malignant growth of pigment cells, often associated with moles.

What types of burns exist?

First, second, third, and fourth degree burns, varying by depth and damage.

When is a burn considered critical?

When it covers more than 20% of the body or affects critical areas.

What is the function of the dermal papillae?

Enhances surface area and anchors the epidermis to the dermis.

Describe the phases of hair growth.

Anagen (growth), catagen (transition), and telogen (resting) phases.

What causes psoriasis?

An autoimmune condition leading to rapid skin cell production and scaling.

What is vitiligo?

Loss of skin pigmentation due to the destruction of melanocytes.

Identify characteristics of eczema.

An inflammatory skin condition causing redness, itching, and dryness.

What is alopecia?

Loss of hair, which can occur in several forms such as areata and totalis.

What defines cellulite?

Subcutaneous fat that causes a dimpled appearance, more common in women.

What is cellulitis?

Bacterial infection of the skin and underlying tissues, causing redness and swelling.

Define necrotizing fasciitis.

A severe bacterial infection that destroys soft tissues, requiring urgent medical attention.

Write an essay outline for cutaneous wound healing.

Explain the stages: hemostasis, inflammation, proliferation, and remodeling, plus factors affecting healing.

Compare basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and melanoma.

Discuss incidence rates, growth patterns, and survival rates associated with each type.

List layers of the epidermis and changes in cell composition.

Stratum basale to stratum corneum, showing differentiation and keratinization.

What distinguishes first-degree burns?

Involve only the epidermis, causing redness and pain without blisters.

What are characteristics of second-degree burns?

Involve both the epidermis and part of the dermis, causing blisters and swelling.

Describe third-degree burns.

Involve all layers of the skin, resulting in charred or white skin and loss of sensation.

What happens during fourth-degree burns?

Extend into underlying tissues and structures, often requiring amputation.

When is a burn critical?

When it affects more than 10% of total body surface area.

What is the structure and function of compact bone?

Hard, dense tissue that provides strength and protection.

What is spongy bone?

Lightweight bone with a mesh-like structure, containing red marrow.

Distinguish between compact and spongy bone.

Compact bone is dense and forms the outer layer, while spongy bone is lighter and found within.

What are osteoblasts?

Bone-forming cells responsible for synthesizing the bone matrix.

What are osteoclasts?

Bone-resorbing cells that break down bone tissue.

Define osteogenic cells.

Stem cells that differentiate into osteoblasts.

What are osteocytes?

Mature bone cells that maintain the bone matrix.

Explain how osteoclasts are formed.

They originate from the fusion of monocytes and are multinucleated.

Describe the structure of long bones.

Consist of a diaphysis, epiphyses, and a medullary cavity.

What are the functions of osteoblasts and osteoclasts?

Osteoblasts build bone while osteoclasts break down bone.

What is the difference between intramembranous and endochondral ossification?

Intramembranous ossification occurs directly in mesenchyme, while endochondral ossification occurs in cartilage.

List types of bone markings.

Projections, depressions, and openings on bones.

What is the function of PTH?

Regulates calcium levels in the blood by stimulating osteoclast activity.

How do glucocorticoids affect bone density?

They inhibit osteoblast function, leading to decreased bone formation.

What is calcitriol?

Active form of vitamin D that increases intestinal absorption of calcium.

What are the functions of bone hormones?

Regulate bone growth, remodeling, and calcium homeostasis.

Define osteocalcin.

A protein hormone produced by osteoblasts that regulates bone formation.

What bones comprise the pelvic girdle?

Ilium, ischium, and pubis.

What are the types of bone classification?

Long, short, flat, irregular, and seasmoid bones.

What is the periosteum?

A dense layer of vascular connective tissue enveloping the bones except at the surfaces of the joints.

What is endosteum?

A thin membrane lining the medullary cavity of the bone.

Differentiate between spongy bone and compact bone.

Spongy bone is lighter and less dense than compact bone, which is dense and hard.