Advanced Hematology Final Review

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Last updated 3:28 AM on 10/14/23
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279 Terms

1
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A pool of undifferentiated cells that can proliferate and differentiate is (are) known as:

stem cells

2
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RBC size and shape and serum immunoglobulin levels affect the:

erythrocyte sedimentation rate

3
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What is the earliest granulocytic maturational stage in which secondary or specific granules appear?

myelocyte

4
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What is the depth of the space between the counting platform and the coverslip on a hemacytometer?

.1 mm

5
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Using a Coulter counter analyzer, an increased RDW should correlate with:

anisocytosis

6
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Specific granules of the neutrophilic granulocyte:

appear first at the myelocyte stage

7
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What effect would using a buffer at pH 6.0 have on a Wright's-stained smear?

red cells would be stained too pink

8
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What describes erythropoietin?

Renal hormone that regulates marrow red cell production

9
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Thrombocytosis would be indicated by a platelet count of:

600 x 10^3/ul

10
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Parasitic infections and allergies often cause:

eosinophilia

11
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A patient has a RDW of 18.2%. What should be seen on the peripheral smear?

anisocytosis

12
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The two parameters used to calculate the hematocrit are the:

RBC count and MCV

13
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_________ cells are responsible for obtaining antigen from antigen-presenting cells and passing this information on to B-cells

T-cells

14
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What is the main function of neutrophilic granulocytes?

phagocytosis

15
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What reagents are used in the PT test?

thromboplastin and calcium

16
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Which ratio of anticoagulant-to-blood is correct to for coagulaton procedures?

1:9

17
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The function of the T lymphocyte is to:

participate in cellular immunity

18
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After staining a peripheral blood smear with Wright's stain and a buffer with the correct pH, the RBCs appear pale pink and the WBCs stain very weakly with little-to-no nuclear detail. One possible explanation is:

There was excessive washing of smear

19
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What effect would using a buffer at pH of 6.0 have on a Wright's stained smear?

Red cells would be stained too pink

20
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The reagents necessary to run an APTT are:

activated partial thromboplastin and CaCl2

21
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Which of the following measures platelet function?

bleeding time

22
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Give the common name for Factor XII

hageman factor

23
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The approximate ratio of hemoglobin to hematocrit is:

1:3

24
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Which of the following is correct regarding the international normalized ratio (INR)?

It standardizes PT results

25
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A leukocyte containing large dark blue granules (granules with an affinity for the basic stain)in the cytoplasm is a

basophil

26
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Facts about Coumadin:

1. alters the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors

2. can be prescribed on a long-term basis to patients with a history of thrombotic events

3. dosage must be moitored regularly with the PT/INR

27
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Where does most hematopoiesis occur in the adult?

Bone marrow of the sternum, ribs, pelvis, vertebrae, skull and the proximal ends of long bones

28
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About _______ of RBC destruction is extravascular and occurs mostly in the spleen.

90%

29
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Autoagglutination of RBCs at room temperature can result in which of the following?

1. Low RBC count

2. High MCV

3. Low hematocrit

30
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Christmas factor is the name for factor:

IX

31
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A falsely elevated Hct is obtained. Which of the folloiwng calculated values will NOT be affected?

MCH

32
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Which of the following hemoglobins is not normally found in adults?

Hemoglobin Portland

33
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Heinz bodies may be found when there is a defect in the:

Hexose monophosphate shunt

34
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What is most consistent with the cytologic findings of a reactive lymphocyte?

finely to coarsely clumped chromatin, frequently with nucleoli and abundant, blue, vacuolated cytoplasm scalloping around adjacent RBCs

35
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Elevation of the lymphocyte percentage above 47% is termed:

relative lymphocytosis

36
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Hypersegmentation of neutrophils is defined as more than ____________ segments.

5

37
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A senescent RBC is one that has

lived its lifespan

38
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What is the average life span of a normal red blood cell?

120 days

39
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Which of the following factors is required in the extrinsic, intrinsic, and common pathways?

V

40
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A standard 4.5 mL blue-top tube filled with 3.0 mL of blood was submitted to the laboratory for PT and APTT tests. The sample is from a patient undergoing surgery the following morning for a tonsillectomy. Which of the following is the necessary course of action for the technologist?

reject the sample and request a new one

41
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Hemoglobin F is composed of two alpha globin chains and two

gamma-globulin chains

42
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Which is the first stage of RBC maturation in which the cytoplasm is pink due to the formation of hemoglobin?

polychromatophilic normoblast

43
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Lack of spleen function to "pit" results in:

inclusions in RBCs

44
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About ________ of all PB lymphs are T-cells

80

45
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The Na, K pump in RBC is an important mechanism in keeping the RBC intact. Its function is to maintain a high level of

Intracellular potassium

46
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Age, gender, and geographic altitude influence the:

Hgb value

47
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_________ contain digestive enzymes, such as myeloperoxidase and esterase.

Neutrophils

48
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Mean cell volume (MCV) is calculate using the following formula:

(Hct/RBC) x 10

49
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Thrombin enhances coagulation by:

converting fibrinogen to fibrin

50
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A Wright's stained smear of a patient with an elevated reticulocyte count will show:

polychromasia

51
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The Coulter principle for counting of cells is based upon the fact that:

Isotonic solutions conduct electricity better than cells do

52
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Which of the following processes is not an element of primary hemostasis?

formation of fibrin

53
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Which of the following statistical terms reflects the best index of precision when comparing two CBC parameters?

coefficient of variation

54
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The red cell series matures in the following sequence:

pronormoblast, basophilic normoblast, polychromatic normoblast, orthochromic normoblast, reticulocyte, mature RBC

55
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An elevated PT and normal APTT is consistent with a deficiency of factor:

Factor VII

56
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The substances that are vital for the production and proliferation of stem cells are called:

colony stimulating factors

57
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Hemoglobin in the ferric (Fe +++ ) state is called

methemoglobin

58
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The extrinsic pathway is monitored by the:

prothrombin time (PT)

59
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Which clotting factor is NOT measured by PT and APTT tests?

Factor XIII

60
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GEMM stands for

granulocyte, erythrocyte, megakaryocyte, monocyte

61
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The hemoglobin pigment that cannot be quanitated by the cyanmethemoglobin method is:

sulfhemoglobin

62
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In order for hemoglobin to combine reversibly with oxygen, the iron must be:

in the ferrous state

63
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Which of the following initiates in vivo coagulation by activation of factor VII?

Protein C

64
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clotting factors are measured by the APTT test?

XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I

65
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The internationally accepted method of hemoglobin measurement requires the conversion of hemoglobin to

cyanmethemoglobin

66
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In granulocytic development, which is the last stage to divide?

Myelocyte

67
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Which coagulation test(s) would be abnormal in a vitamin K-deficient patient?

PT and APTT

68
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Insufficient centrifugation will result in:

A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value

69
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can shift the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve to the right?

- Hypoxia

- Increases in 2,3 DPG

- Acidosis

70
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Wright's stain is a mixture of

methylene blue and eosin

71
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is considered a normal hemoglobin?

deoxyhemoglobin

72
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The reference range for an adult male Hct would be:

42-52%

73
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The RBC organic phospate 2,3-BPG:

controls hemoglobin affinity for oxygen

74
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During mid-fetal life, what is the primary site of hematopoiesis?

liver

75
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Heparin:

binds with Antithrombin III to inhibit thrombin

76
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The primary hemostatic plug consists of:

aggregated platelets

77
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Ninety percent of the ATP or glucose required by RBCs is provided by the:

glycolytic pathway

78
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Which test would be abnormal in a patient with Stuart-Prower factor deficiency?

PT and APTT

79
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Tissue cells that look like basophils (and thought by some to be basophils in the tissues) are called ______________ cells.

mast

80
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Which of the following statements about microhematocrits is FALSE?

Centrifuging for too long causes falsely low results

81
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Insufficient centrifugation will result in:

A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value

82
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can shift the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve to the right?

- Hypoxia

- Increases in 2,3 DPG

- Acidosis

83
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Insufficient centrifugation will result in:

A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value

84
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can shift the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve to the right?

- Hypoxia

- Increases in 2,3 DPG

- Acidosis

85
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Insufficient centrifugation will result in:

A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value

86
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Insufficient centrifugation will result in:

A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value

87
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Insufficient centrifugation will result in:

A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value

88
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Insufficient centrifugation will result in:

A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value

89
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Insufficient centrifugation will result in:

A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value

90
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Which coagulation test(s) would be abnormal in a vitamin K-deficient patient?

PT and APTT

91
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clotting factors are measured by the APTT test?

XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I

92
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Which of the following conditions would produce oval macrocytes?

pernicious anemia

93
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An aplastic anemia is most often classified morphologically as:

normocytic, normochromic

94
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Which of the following is used to monitor red cell production?

reticulocyte count

95
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An eldery patient with rheumatoid arthritis develops ACI? The laboroatory results leading to the ACI diagosis were:

low serum iron and low TIBC

96
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Serum ferritin is a good indicator of the amount of:

storage iron

97
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Heinz bodies are:

denatured hemoglobin

98
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Spherocytes may be seen in hereditary spherocytosis and patients with:

severe burns

99
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If a patient who has iron deficiency anemia receives blood transfusions from healthy adults, the peripheral blood smear most likely will show:

anisocytosis

100
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A major cause of non-megaloblastic macrocytosis is:

alcoholism