Final - Review Microbiology 2421 (Chp. 14, 16 & 17)

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254 Terms

1
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Which protein can be produced by a virus-infected cell, in order to communicate with other cells that need to produce antiviral proteins?

Interferon

2
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A type of monocyte that has long, thin processes to trap pathogens is a

Dendritic cell

3
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When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into:

Macrophages

4
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Which of the following is not a chief function of inflammation?

Cause a fever

5
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Which of the following is not a type of phagocyte?

Lymphocytes

6
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Which white blood cells comprise 20% to 30% of circulating WBCs and are the cells that function in the body’s specific immune system?

Lymphocytes

7
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All of the following are events of early inflammation except

Macrophages appear first and begin phagocytes

8
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Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called ________ because they have prominent cytoplasmic inclusions that, in a stained blood smear, appear with identifying, characteristics colors.

Granulocytes`

9
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A person will typically experience the sensation of _____ when fever is starting to occur in the body

Chill

10
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A properly functioning immune system is responsible for;

All the choices are correct;

11
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Each of the following is a term reflecting a process involved in the migration of white blood cells expect

Phagocytosis

12
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Hematopoiesis is the

Production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets

13
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The body region is protected by fatty acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier with its own normal biota

Skin

14
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All of the following pertain to interferon except

Increases capillary permeability and vasodilation

15
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The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell wall is

Lysozyme

16
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The granules of neutrophils contain

Digestive enzymes

17
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The leakage of vascular fluid into tissues is called

Edema

18
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Which of the following is mismatched in relation to inflammation?

Tumor - cancer

19
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Diapedesis is the

Migration of white blood cells from the blood, out to the tissues

20
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Which of the following is incorrect about inflammation?

Pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability

21
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A patient enters your clinic with a suspected helminthic infection, in support of this diagnosis, you suspect elevated levels of which antibody in the patient’s serum?

IgE

22
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Autoimmune disorders are characterized by immune destruction of self tissues. The underlying basis of these disorders is

Lack of immune tolerance

23
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Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II?

TH cell

24
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A cytotoxic T lymphocyte, having been activated against a particular viral antigens, “sees” this same antigen on a host body cell. What will happen?

The cytotoxic T cell will produce proteins that cause the host body cell to die

25
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The most significant cells in graft rejection are

Cytotoxic T cells

26
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<p>In Figure 17.2, which areas are similar for all IgG antibodies?</p>

In Figure 17.2, which areas are similar for all IgG antibodies?

C and D

27
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An activated TH cell produces _______, which is a growth factor for T helper cells and cytotoxic T cells

Interleukin-2

28
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An example of natural active immunity would be

Chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity

29
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The region of each antibody molecules where amino acid composition is highly diversified from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the ______ region

Variable

30
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The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all of the following except

Four antigen binding sites

31
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As an adult who never developed chickenpox infection as a child, you elect to receive the protective vaccine against this pathogen at the age of 35. This vaccine will stimulate

A primary immune response

32
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An antibody’s Fc region can be bound by

Macrophages

33
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Properties of effective antigens include all of the following except

Large polymers made up of repeating subunits

34
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Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed

Haptens

35
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Specific immunity provides long-lasting protection through the production of

Memory cells

36
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Which of the following destroys virus-infected cells?

CTL

37
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Which of the following is not a target for TC cells?

Bacteria

38
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Which of the following terms regarding roles of chemical messengers is mismatched?

Tumor necrosis factor - stimulate tumor metasasis

39
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Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by

Treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation

40
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Which of the following statement is true ?

At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship

41
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Which of the following is not an example of microbial antagonism?

Bacteria causing disease

42
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Which of the following statement is false? (strands)

The M in MRSA stands for mannitol

43
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Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle, What is this condition called?

Septicemia

44
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Transient microbiota differ from normal microbaiota in that transient microbiota

Are present for a relatively short time

45
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Focal infections initially start out as

Local infections

46
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Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? (disease)

Epidermic: a disease that is endemic across the world

47
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Which of the following statements about biological transmission is FALSE?

Houseflies are an important vector

48
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Which of the following is not a reservoir of infection?

None of the answers is correct; all of these can be reservoirs of infection

49
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The CDC is located in

Atlanta, GA

50
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The rise in herd immunity amongst a population can directly attributed to

Vaccinations

51
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Which of the following statements about nosocomial infections is false?

The patient was infected before hospitalization

52
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During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever 39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years.

The etioloogic agent of the disease in the situation isDuring a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever 39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years.

the situation is an example of

Coxiella burnetii

53
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Which of the following definitions in incorrect?

Secondary infection; a long-lasting illness

54
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Which of the following diseases can gender be considered a viable predisposing factor?

Urinary tract infections

55
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During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever 39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years.

The situation is an example of

A zoonosis

56
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Which of the following is not a predisposing factor of diseases?

None of these answers are correct; all of these are predisposing factors of disease

57
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During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever 39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years.

The method of transmission of the disease in the situation was

Vehicles`

58
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Which of the following diseases is not spread by droplet infection?

Botulism

59
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A commensal bacterium

May also be an opportunistic pathogen

60
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The main function of the mononuclear phagocyte system is to provide

A connection between tissues and organs

61
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The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from the body site is the...

Respiratory tract

62
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The least numerous of all white blood cells that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions are

Basophils

63
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Lysozyme is found in

Tears, salivary secretions, and sweat from sweat glands

64
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Histamine, serotonin and bradykinin are all

Vasoactive mediators

65
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The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following EXCEPT ________.

Chills

66
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The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme, and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are ______.

Eosinophils

67
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Which of the following is a chemical used by phagocytes to destroy ingested foreign substances

Nitric oxide, lactic acid, hydrogen peroxide, and superoxide anion

68
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Which of the following is not an event of phagocytosis?

Diapedisis

69
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Which of the following pertain to platelets except that they

Contain hemogoblin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide

70
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The granules of basophils contain

Histamine

71
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Which of the following statements about natural killer cells is FALSE?

They are stimulated by an antigen

72
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Thymic selection

Destroys T cells that do not recognize MHC molecules for an immune response

73
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ADCC is a process that is most effective in destroying

Eukaryotic pathogens

74
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<p>In Figure, 17.2, which areas represent antigen-binding sites?</p>

In Figure, 17.2, which areas represent antigen-binding sites?

A and B

75
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<p>In Figure 17.1, which letter on the graph indicates the highest antibody titer during the patient's response to a second and distinct/different antigen?</p>

In Figure 17.1, which letter on the graph indicates the highest antibody titer during the patient's response to a second and distinct/different antigen?

E

76
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Which of the following is not lymphocytes

M cells

77
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During presentation of APC-bound antigen, macrophages and dendritic cells secrete the cytokine, _____, that activates T helper cells

Interleukin 1

78
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NK cells do all of the following except

Become activated by TH-2 cellsonpo

79
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*Plasma

*All of the choices are correct

80
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Which white blood cells comprise 3-7% of circulating WBCs , are phagocytics and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages

Monocytes

81
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The leakage of vascular fluid into tissues is called

Edema

82
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Nonspecific chemical defenses includes .

All of the choices are correct .

83
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What type of molecules act to draw phagocytes to foreign substances?

PAMPs

84
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Keratin is an important aspect of nonspecific defense because it

Creates a physical barrier against pathogens

85
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The ________ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells and viruses

Complement

86
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Which is the first step in the major events of the inflammatory process?

Injury and mast cells releasing chemical mediators

87
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Which of the following is mismatched?

Prostaglandins - activate eosinophils and B cells

88
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______ function in humoral immunity, while _______ function in cell-mediated immunity

B cells; T cells

89
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What structures are found along lymphatic vessels and are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck?

Lymph nodes

90
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The most numerous WBCs that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are

Neutrophils

91
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During what process are hypochlorite peroxide produced in order to destroy bacteria and inhibit viral replication?

Phagocytosis

92
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The molecular fragment on an anitgen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an

Epitope

93
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Wich lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?

Natural killer (NK) cells

94
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High titers of specific antibodies are characteristic of

Specific immune globulin (SIG)

95
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The array of potential antibodies to the variety of possible antigens is amazing. Which statement explains this developement?

Recombination of hundreds of genes for antigen receptors occurs during the developmental stage of lymphocyte production

96
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Plasma cells are activated by a(n)

Antigen

97
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Which of the following statements is NOT a possible outcome of antigen-antibody reaction?

Clonal delection

98
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Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions”

All of the choices are correct”

99
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<p><span>In Figure 17.1, which letter on the graph indicates the patient's secondary response to a repeated exposure with the identical antigen?</span></p>

In Figure 17.1, which letter on the graph indicates the patient's secondary response to a repeated exposure with the identical antigen?

C

100
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You have received the first hepatitis A vaccine. It was required for your mission trip to Nicaragua in Central America, where hepatitis A is common. However, you never went back for the booster shot of the vaccine, which should have been received within 6 months of the initial vaccination. What statement accurately reflects your present immunity to this pathogen?

You are at risk to get hepatitis A since your immune status is only partial. Not enough immune memory cells were produced since you received one dosage of vaccine, so you are likely to get the disease when exposed to the virus