ELSEVIER Immunology & Serology | Quizlet

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50 Terms

1
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Natural barriers of the immune system include all except which of the following?

a. pH of secretions

B. Coughing

C. Hair follicles

D. Intestinal bacteria

C. Hair follicles

2
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The fundamental difference between primary and secondary organs of the lymphatic system is:

a. Antibody production occurs only in the primary lymph organs

B. Complement production occurs only in the primary lymph organs

C. Maturation of lymphocytes occurs in secondary organs and activation occurs in primary organs

D. Maturation of lymphocytes occurs in primary organs and activation occurs in secondary organs

D. Maturation of lymphocytes occurs in primary organs and activation occurs in secondary organs

3
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Toll like receptors act in which way?

A. Enhance recognition of bacteria by phagocytic cells

B. Activate B cells to produce antibody

C. Activate helper T cells

D. Aid in processing antigen in the form of an MHC molecule

a. Enhance recognition of bacteria by phagocytic cells

4
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Neutrophils and monocytes have receptors for which part of the immunoglobulin molecule?

A. Fc

B. Fab

C. Hinge region

D. Variable region

A. Fc

5
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One B-cell marker of early stage B cell development is; ( ) whereas; ( ) Is a marker for later stages of the B-cell development

A. CD 20; CD 10

B. CD 21; CD 10

C. CD 10; CD 20

D. CD19; CD10

C. CD 10; CD 20

6
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A double positive T cell would express which markers?

A. CD4+CD8+CD3+

B. CD4-CD8+CD3+

C. CD4-CD8-CD3-

D. CD4+CD8-CD3+

A. CD4+CD8+CD3+

7
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Which cell is considered to be a bridge between the inmates and adaptive immune systems?

A. NK cell

B. Mast cell

C. Monocyte-macrophage

D. T cell

A. NK cell

8
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( ) are involved in cell mediated immunity whereas ( ) Are involved in humoral immunity

A. T cells and B cells

B. T cells and antibodies

C. B cells and T cells

D. A and B

D. A and B

9
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Antigens that make very good immunizations include which of the following?

A. Carbohydrates

B. Proteins

C. Both A and B

D. Neither a or B

B. Proteins

10
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The function of the complement system includes which of the following?

A. Clearance of cellular debris

B. Chemotaxis

C. Lysis of bacteria

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

11
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When C-3 is cleaved by C3 convertase what is the result?

A. C3A is released

B. C3B is used as an ops on in

C. C3B is combined with other complement proteins to form C5 convertase

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

12
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Characteristics of Cytokines include which of the following?

A. They can have a pleomorphic affect

B. Cytokines are redundant

C. Cytokines in hands cellular differentiation of lymphocytes

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

13
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Immunoglobulin Idiotypes are antibodies with variations in the domains of which of the following?

A. Ch1 and Ch2

B. Vh and Vl

C. Vh and CL

D. Ch1, Ch2, and Ch3

B. Vh and Vl

14
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Mannose-binding lectin is similar to which component of the classical pathway?

A. C3

B. C2

C. C1q

D. C5a

C. C1q

15
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A patient with a viral infection to the ABC virus is found to have a high antibody tighter to the ABC virus is RNA or anti-ABCr. which of the following is true?

A. MHC class one molecules presented antigen to CD4+ T cells

B. MHC class to molecules presented antigen to CD8+ T cells

C. MHC class one molecules presented antigen to CD8+ T cells

D. MHC class to molecules present an antigen to CD4+ T cells

C. MHC class one molecules presented antigen to CD8+ T cells

16
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What is the main difference between agglutination and precipitation reactions?

A. Agglutination occurs between a soluble antigen and antibody

B. Agglutination occurs when the antigen is particulate

C. Precipitation occurs when the antigen is particulate

D. Precipitation occurs when both antigen and antibody are particulate

B. Agglutination occurs when the antigen is particulate

17
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Post zone causes false negative reactions in antibody titers as a result of which of the following?

A. Too much diluent added to the test

B. Excess antibody in test

C. Excess antigen in test

D. Incorrect diluent added to test

C. Excess antigen in test

18
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Antibodies produced against two or more epitopes of specific antigen are considered:

A. Monoclonal

B. Pleomorphic

C. Dimorphic

D. Polyclonal

D. Polyclonal

19
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In the radial immunodiffusion test the gel contains which of the following:

A. The antigen to be tested

B. Antibody

C. Patient sample

D. None of the above

B. Antibody

20
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Which statement is true regarding the radial immunodeficiency test?

A. The area of precipitin ring is directly proportional to the concentration of antigen in the sample

B. The area of precipitin ring is directly proportional to the concentration of antibody in the sample

C. The area of precipitin ring is directly proportional to the concentration antibody and the antigen in the sample

D. The area of the precipitin ring indicates a partial identity to the antibody in the sample

A. The area of precipitin ring is directly proportional to the concentration of antigen in the sample

21
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The indirect antiglobulin test is for ( ) Whereas the direct antiglobulin test is for ( )

A. Serum antigen; bound antigen

B. Serum antigen; Bound antibodies

C. Serum anti-body; bound antigen

D. Serum antibody; bound antibodies

D. Serum antibody; bound antibodies

22
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In an indirect immunofluorescence antibody test for CMV antibodies the conjugated antibody use for visualizing is

A. Anti-human globulin conjugated to a fluorescent dye

B. Anti-CMV antibody conjugated to a fluorescent dye

C. CMV virus conjugated to a fluorescent dye

D. Anti-human globulin conjugated to an enzyme

A. Anti-human globulin conjugated to a fluorescent dye

23
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What is the difference between nephlometry and turbidimetry?

A. There is no difference between the two Assays only in the name

B. Nephlometry Is a newer example of turbidimetry

C. Nephlometry Measures light transmitted through a solution and turbidimetry measures light scattered in a solution

D. Nephlometry Measures light scattered in a solution and turbidimetry Measures light transmitted through a solution

D. Nephlometry Measures like scattered in a solution and turbidimetry Measures like transmitted through a solution

24
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In an ouchterlony Immunodiffusion the line of precipitation between the antibody on the antigen Wells forms an X. This reaction would be described as which of the following?

A. Non-identity

B. Partial identity

C. Identity

A. Non-identity

25
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And initial tighter or 4 followed by a subsequent tighter of 16 for the same patient drawn two weeks later is indicative of which of the following?

A. Infection

B. Convalescence

C. Past exposure

D. No exposure

A. Infection

26
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A deficiency of T cells can result in which of the following?

A. Low levels of complement

B. Dysfunctional macrophages

C. Fewer B cells maturing to plasma cells

D. Contact dermatitis

C. Fewer B cells maturing to plasma cells

27
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A two week old baby is seen for a possible infection with CMV which of the following statements is false?

A. A positive anti-CMV result from baby specimen is inconclusive

B. An initial titer of anti-CMV IgG would need to be established

C. A positive result for anti-CMV IGM would indicate infection

D. All are false statements

B. An initial titer of anti-CMV IgG would need to be established

28
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What is the basic difference between theRPR and VDRL tests?

A. The RPR detects antigen whereas the VDRL Detects antibody

B. The RPR test is read macroscopically whereas the VDRL is read microscopically

C. The RPR test is a Treponemal test whereas the VDRL is Non-treponemal

D. There is no difference because they are both specific test for syphilis

B. The RPR test is read macroscopically whereas the VDRL is read microscopically

29
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A patient has the following hepatitis B serology:

HBSAG negative

Anti-HBC positive

Anti-HBS positive

These results are consistent with which of the following?

A. Acute hepatitis B

B. Chronic hepatitis B

C. Recovery from hepatitis B

D. Acute hepatitis A

C. Recovery from hepatitis B

30
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The HLA genes are inherited as

A. Diplotypes: two diplotypes from each parent

B. Haplotypes: One haplotype from each parent

C. HLAs are not inherited instead are proteins absorbed into cells

D. Only the HLA-A antigen is Inheritable trait

B. Haplotypes: One haplotype from each parent

31
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Agglutination and precipitation that is visible depends on antigen-antibody ratios

A. With antigen in Excess

B. With antibody in excess

C. That are equivalent

D. All of the above

C. That are equivalent

32
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of the following cell types is implicated in immediate hypersensitivity?

A. Neutrophil

B. Mast cell

C. Macrophage

D. Monocyte

B. Mast cell

33
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Anti-dsDNA antibodies are associated with which of the following?

A. Syphilis

B. CMV infection

C. Systemic lupus erythematosus

D. Hemolytic anemia

C. Systemic lupus erythematosus

34
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Rheumatoid factor is typically and IGM autoantibody with specificity for which of the following

A. SS-B

B. Double-stranded DNA

C. Ribonucleoprotein

D. Fc portion of IgG

D. Fc portion of IgG

35
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All of the following are auto immune diseases except

A. Rheumatoid arthritis

B. RH Disease of the fetus and newborn

C. Graves' disease

D. Myasthenia gravis

B. RH Disease of the fetus and newborn

36
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In Graves' disease one of the main auto antibodies is

A. Anti-CCP

B. Antibody to Islip cells of pancreas

C. Antibody to thyroid stimulating hormone receptor

D. Anti-dsDNA

C. Antibody to thyroid stimulating hormone receptor

37
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And auto antibodies found in patients with Hashimoto's thyroiditis reacts with which of the following

A. TSH receptor

B. Islet cells

C. CRP

D. Thyroglobulin

D. Thyroglobulin

38
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Skin testing for exposure to tuberculosis is an example of which type of hypersensitivity

A. Type I

B. Type II

C. Type III

D. Type IV

D. Type IV

39
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Which of the following is a test for specific treponemal antibody

A. VDRL

B. RPR

C. FTA-ABS

D. All of the above

C. FTA-ABS

40
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Serum tested positive for HBsAg & Anti HBc IgM the patient most likely has which of the following

A. Acute hepatitis C

B. Chronic hepatitis B

C. Acute hepatitis B

D. Acute hepatitis A

C. Acute hepatitis B

41
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The main difference between leukemia and lymphoma's is which of the following

A. Leukemias are malignancies of cells in the bone marrow

B. Lymphomas are malignancies of cells in the bone marrow

C. Lymphomas are classified as either acute or chronic

D. Leukemia are malignancies in lymphoid tissue

A. Leukemias are malignancies of cells in the bone marrow

42
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A one-year-old boy is seen for having many recurrent infections with streptococcus pneumoniae laboratory test revealed the normal quantity of T cells but no B cells and no immuno goblins were seen on electrophoresis which of the following would most likely be the cause?

A. Chronic granulomatous disease

B. Bruton's agammaglobulinemia

C. DiGeorges syndrome

D. Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome

B. Bruton's agammaglobulinemia

43
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A patient with hereditary angioedema has which of the following deficiencies

A. C59

B. Phagocytic cell function

C. Mature B cells

D. C1 inhibitor

D. C1 inhibitor

44
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A radiograph of a one-year-old boy indicates the lack of a thymus complete blood count and flow cytometry confirm a below normal lymphocyte count any lack of T cells which of the following would most likely be the cause?

A. DiGeorges syndrome

B. Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome

C. Bare lymphocyte syndrome

D. Brutons agammaglobulinemia

A. DiGeorges syndrome

45
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Severe combined immunodeficiency is characterized by which of the following

A. Diagnosed in infancy

B. Shortened lifespan

C. No antibody production

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

46
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A three-year-old boy has seen by his physician because of many recent bacterial infections flow cytometry indicates normal levels of T and B sells the nitroblue tetrazolium test for oxidative reduction is negative the most likely cause is

A. Wegener's syndrome

B. Chronic granulamatous disease

C. Bruton's agammaglobulinemia

D. Diabetes Mellitus

B. Chronic granulamatous disease

47
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What 25-year-old man was seen by his position for recurrent infections immuno electrophoresis revealed Hypogammaglobulinemia. this man most likely has which of the following

A. Bruton's agammaglobulinemia

B. Common variable immunodeficiency

C. X-linked agammaglobulinemia

D. DiGeorges syndrome

B. Common variable immunodeficiency

48
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In which disease will you expect to see an IGM spike on electrophoresis

A. Transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy

B. Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome

C. Luekocyte adhesion disease

D. WaldenStrom's macroglobulinemia

D. WaldenStrom's macroglobulinemia

49
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A person has an infected bug bite with pain swelling and redness what is the cause of these physical symptoms of inflammation

A. Production of antibody

B. Secondary immune response

C. Increased blood flow and neutrophils to site

D. Activation of NK cells

C. Increased blood flow and neutrophils to site

50
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The type of graft rejection that occurs within minutes of a tissue transplant is

A. Acute

B. Chronic

C. Hyperacute

D. Accelerated

C. Hyperacute