Quick Facts for NCLEX – Core Content Flashcards

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A curated set of flashcards covering high-yield Quick Facts topics for NCLEX, formatted as question-and-answer to reinforce definitions, lab values, medications, pathophysiology, nursing interventions, and client teaching.

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63 Terms

1
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What is the primary symptom of GERD (acid reflux)?

Heartburn (pyrosis).

2
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Which diagnostic test confirms GERD?

Barium-swallow fluoroscopy.

3
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In GERD, which structure malfunctions to allow reflux?

Lower esophageal sphincter.

4
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Dietary teaching for GERD includes what two key points?

Low-fat, high-protein meals and no lying flat after eating.

5
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Which virus causes AIDS?

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).

6
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What screening and confirmatory tests are used for HIV?

ELISA for screening; Western Blot to confirm.

7
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Which lymphocyte is destroyed by HIV, and why is its count monitored?

CD4 (T-helper) cells; a falling count shows immune damage—<200 cells/mm³ signals AIDS and risk for opportunistic infection.

8
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Name four common opportunistic infections in AIDS.

Oral candidiasis, Kaposi’s sarcoma, Pneumocystis pneumonia, Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis.

9
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What medication is prototype therapy for HIV?

Zidovudine (AZT, Retrovir).

10
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Define Acute Renal Failure (ARF).

Sudden inability of kidneys to excrete toxins and regulate fluid/electrolytes.

11
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List the three phases of ARF in order.

Oliguric phase, diuretic phase, recovery phase.

12
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During the oliguric phase of ARF, what urine output and electrolyte changes occur?

Urine <400 mL/day; hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, ↑BUN/creatinine, fluid overload.

13
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Best diet for ARF clients?

High-carbohydrate, low-protein.

14
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Clients allergic to latex often react to which foods?

Bananas, kiwi, chestnuts.

15
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Which food allergy contraindicates IV contrast dye?

Iodine/shellfish allergy.

16
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After an above-knee amputation, how should the limb be positioned post-op?

Elevate stump for first 24 h, then prone twice daily to prevent hip flexion contracture.

17
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Define an aneurysm.

Localized dilation at a weakened arterial wall segment.

18
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Key teaching to prevent aneurysm rupture includes avoiding what activities?

Straining, heavy lifting, or exertion; maintain strict BP control.

19
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Primary symptom of anorexia nervosa and a major cardiac risk?

Self-starvation; risk of arrhythmias from electrolyte loss.

20
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Classic location of tenderness in appendicitis?

McBurney’s point (right lower quadrant).

21
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Before drawing an ABG, which circulation test is done?

Allen’s test.

22
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First drug to give during acute asthma attack—bronchodilator or steroid?

Bronchodilator first, then steroid.

23
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List the six inhaler steps for a metered-dose inhaler (MDI).

Shake, remove cap, exhale, place in mouth, inhale slowly while pressing canister, hold breath 10 s then exhale.

24
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Autonomic dysreflexia occurs in spinal injuries at or above which level, and why is it dangerous?

T5; causes life-threatening hypertension triggered by noxious stimuli like full bladder.

25
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First nursing action during autonomic dysreflexia episode?

Place client in high Fowler’s position.

26
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Bell’s palsy affects which cranial nerve and produces what symptom?

Cranial nerve VII; temporary unilateral facial paralysis.

27
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Typical surgical treatment for BPH?

Transurethral resection of prostate (TURP).

28
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Purpose of continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) after TURP?

Prevent and flush out blood clots; urine should be light pink.

29
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Universal donor blood type?

O negative.

30
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Before starting a blood transfusion, how many nurses verify the unit and what gauge IV is required?

Two nurses; 18-gauge needle with filter.

31
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Hold antihypertensive medication if systolic BP is below ___ or HR below ___.

Systolic <100 mm Hg or HR <60 bpm.

32
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ACE inhibitors end with what suffix and may cause which serious adverse effect?

“-pril”; angioedema with swelling of lips/mouth and persistent cough.

33
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Best diet pattern for hypertension according to DASH?

Low-sodium, low-fat; rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains.

34
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Breast-feeding releases which two hormones and commonly causes what maternal sensation?

Prolactin and oxytocin; abdominal cramps during feeding.

35
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Main teaching for Buerger’s disease?

Stop all tobacco use; keep extremities warm; reduce stress.

36
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Definition of bulimia nervosa behavior cycle.

Recurrent binge eating followed by purging (vomiting, laxatives, etc.).

37
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Rule of Nines percent for an entire adult arm?

9% (front + back).

38
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Parkland formula for burn fluid resuscitation?

4 mL LR × body weight (kg) × %TBSA burn; give half in first 8 h.

39
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Most dangerous radiation type and key precaution?

Sealed internal implant; all body fluids radioactive, use lead container if implant dislodges.

40
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Critical neutropenic precautions include avoiding what foods and items?

No raw foods, fresh plants, or standing water; strict handwashing.

41
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After cataract surgery, how should client sleep and what activities avoid?

Sleep on unaffected side or back; no coughing, sneezing, bending, lifting >5 lb.

42
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Celiac disease requires elimination of which grains mnemonic BROW?

Barley, Rye, Oats, Wheat (gluten sources).

43
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Triad of increased ICP Cushing’s triad?

Widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, irregular/Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

44
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Ear medication administration difference adult vs child pinna?

Adult: pull pinna up & back; Child: pull pinna down & back.

45
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Hypotonic IV fluid example and primary risk?

0.45% NaCl; rapid shift into cells can cause cerebral edema.

46
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Lead poisoning initial chelation given by which route?

Multiple IM injections of chelating agent (e.g., EDTA).

47
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First signs of digoxin toxicity?

Seeing yellow/green halos, nausea/vomiting, abdominal pain.

48
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Hold digoxin if adult HR is below what rate?

Below 60 bpm.

49
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Loop diuretics like furosemide waste which electrolyte and are contraindicated with which allergy?

Potassium; contraindicated in sulfa allergy.

50
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Sterile gown is considered sterile between which body areas?

From chest to waist, sleeves from cuffs to 2 in above elbows.

51
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Tardive dyskinesia is adverse effect of which drug class and treated with which medication?

Typical antipsychotics; treat with anti-Parkinson agent (benztropine).

52
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Main complication when TPN is abruptly stopped and prevention?

Rebound hypoglycemia; always taper rate, use 10% dextrose if bag unavailable.

53
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For tracheostomy suctioning, should suction be applied during catheter insertion?

No; apply suction only while withdrawing catheter.

54
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Stevens-Johnson syndrome can be caused by which antibiotic combo?

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim).

55
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Standard TB medication acronym STRIPE—list agents.

Streptomycin, Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol.

56
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Ulcerative colitis stools are characteristically what?

Bloody diarrhea up to 20 stools/day.

57
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Fat-soluble vitamins and the one essential for clotting?

A, D, E, K; Vitamin K critical for blood clotting.

58
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Normal adult potassium level range?

3.5 – 5.1 mEq/L.

59
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Key side effect triad (ABCDs) of many anticholinergic or psych medications?

Altered vitals, Blurred vision, Constipation/Confusion, Dry mouth/Dizziness, Sedation.

60
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Rule for mixing regular and NPH insulin in one syringe.

Draw up clear (regular) before cloudy (NPH).

61
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Parkinson’s disease classic triad of motor symptoms?

Bradykinesia, resting tremor, muscle rigidity.

62
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ACE inhibitor cough vs angioedema—which is more immediately life-threatening?

Angioedema (airway obstruction risk).

63
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Dangerous side effect of clozapine requiring WBC monitoring?

Agranulocytosis.