Recombinant DNA Technology and Central Dogma — Flashcards

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Flashcards covering key concepts from lecture notes on recombinant DNA technology, central dogma, cloning, PCR, libraries, metagenomics, genome editing, transgenesis, and CRISPR.

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38 Terms

1
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What is the Central Dogma and its flow of information?

Flow is DNA (genotype) -> RNA (transcript) -> protein (phenotype); one-way path, with an exception via reverse transcription in retroviruses.

2
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Which enzyme copies DNA during replication and what does replication require?

DNA polymerase; requires a primer to start synthesis and produce identical DNA molecules.

3
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What is transcription and which enzyme carries it out?

RNA polymerase synthesizes RNA using DNA as a template; produces mRNA that carries the code to the cytoplasm (T in DNA is replaced by U in RNA).

4
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What is translation and what machinery carries it out?

Ribosome translates mRNA into protein in the cytoplasm.

5
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What are the key regulatory domains of a gene?

Promoter, activator, silencer, terminator; the open reading frame (ORF) contains exons and introns (introns are present in eukaryotes, not typically in bacteria).

6
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What is the difference between exons and introns and which organisms have introns?

Exons code for the protein; introns are non-coding regions removed by splicing; introns are present in eukaryotes, not in most bacteria.

7
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What is reverse transcription?

The process by which RNA-dependent DNA polymerase (reverse transcriptase) makes DNA from an RNA template; an exception to the one-way central dogma.

8
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What is the role of a promoter in transcription?

Promoter binds RNA polymerase and determines where transcription starts; without it, basal expression would be absent.

9
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What are transcription start sites and the start/stop elements in transcription and translation?

Transcription start site marks where RNA synthesis begins; start codon is ATG; stop codon signals termination; transcription terminator; there are 5' and 3' untranslated regions (UTRs).

10
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What are untranslated regions (UTRs)?

Flanking regions of mRNA that are not translated into protein; influence translation efficiency and mRNA stability.

11
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What do restriction enzymes do?

Cut DNA at specific restriction sites, generating restriction fragments; used to create sticky or blunt ends for cloning.

12
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What are sticky ends and blunt ends in restriction digestion?

Sticky ends are staggered cuts with overhangs that base-pair with complementary ends; blunt ends are straight cuts with no overhangs; ligation efficiency varies.

13
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What is EcoRI and why is it important?

A commonly used restriction enzyme from E. coli that recognizes a palindrome and creates sticky ends; widely used in cloning.

14
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What is DNA ligase?

Enzyme that seals phosphodiester bonds to join DNA fragments after restriction digestion; forms a continuous backbone.

15
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What is a plasmid and why is it used as a cloning vector?

Small circular DNA that replicates independently; carries an origin of replication, promoter, multiple cloning site, and selectable marker to propagate inserted genes in bacteria.

16
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How does LacZ/X-gal blue-white screening work?

LacZ encodes beta-galactosidase; insertion into LacZ disrupts enzyme function; colonies with intact LacZ appear blue on X-gal plates; white colonies indicate inserts (recombinant plasmids).

17
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What are the three possible outcomes when inserting a fragment with sticky ends into a vector?

Insert ligates in the correct orientation, in the reverse orientation, or the vector closes without an insert (empty vector).

18
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What is transformation and what methods are used to introduce plasmids into bacteria?

Process of making bacteria take up plasmid DNA; methods include chemical transformation (salt and heat shock) and electroporation.

19
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Why is antibiotic selection used in cloning?

Plasmids carry antibiotic resistance genes; only bacteria that have taken up the plasmid survive on antibiotic-containing media.

20
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How can lacZ-based screening distinguish recombinant plasmids?

Insertion disrupts LacZ activity; white colonies indicate recombinant plasmids, blue colonies indicate non-recombinant plasmids.

21
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What is a genomic DNA library?

A collection of plasmids each carrying a fragment of the organism's entire genome; used to locate or isolate genes.

22
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What is a cDNA library and why is it useful?

A library of complementary DNA generated from mRNA; lacks introns and reflects expressed genes; can be expressed in prokaryotes.

23
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What is a metagenomic library?

A library created from environmental DNA to access genes from organisms that cannot be cultured in the lab.

24
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What is PCR and what are its main components?

In vitro DNA amplification; requires DNA template, primers, DNA polymerase, dNTPs, and buffer; performed in a thermal cycler.

25
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What are the typical steps in a PCR cycle?

Denaturation (~95°C) to separate strands, annealing (primer-dependent temperature) to bind primers, extension (~72°C) to synthesize DNA; repeated for ~30 cycles.

26
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What is a thermocycler?

Instrument that precisely cycles temperatures for PCR to enable DNA amplification.

27
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How do you produce a genomic DNA library? (Steps summarized)

Isolate organism's DNA, fragment with restriction enzymes, ligate fragments into plasmids, transform bacteria, select white colonies to indicate inserts.

28
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How can short oligonucleotides be assembled into longer DNA sequences?

Overlap-based assembly: design overlapping oligos, anneal, extend to fill gaps with PCR, denature and reassemble; repeat to build longer sequences (up to about 1000 bases).

29
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What is codon optimization and why is it used?

Modify gene sequence to match the host's preferred codon usage to improve protein expression and yield.

30
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What is the difference between constitutive and inducible promoters?

Constitutive promoters drive constant expression; inducible promoters require a stimulus to activate transcription.

31
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Give an example of overexpression affecting phenotype.

Overexpression of enzymes (e.g., PEP carboxylase) can alter metabolism and phenotype (e.g., obesity in mice) depending on regulation.

32
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What is antisense-mediated gene silencing?

Antisense RNA binds complementary mRNA, blocking translation or triggering degradation to reduce gene expression.

33
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What is RNA interference (RNAi) and how does it work?

Double-stranded RNA is processed into siRNA/miRNA; guides RISC to complementary mRNA to degrade it, silencing gene expression; may involve stem-loop structures in some systems.

34
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What is cisgenesis?

Using DNA from the same species (or a sexually compatible donor) to modify an organism; no foreign DNA introduced.

35
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What is CRISPR-Cas9 and how does it edit genomes?

Cas9 nuclease guided by a gRNA creates a targeted double-strand break; repair by non-homologous end joining or homology-directed repair yields insertions/deletions or precise edits; used for genome editing in plants, animals, and humans (e.g., malaria-resistant mosquitoes).

36
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What is the Minimal Genome Project?

Determining the smallest set of genes required for survival; Mycoplasma genitalium had ~415 genes, reduced to ~372; minimal genome synthesized and transplanted into recipient cells to create a minimal organism (Mycoplasma laboratorium).

37
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What is transgenesis?

Introduction of artificial genetic constructs into a genome to alter expression; can achieve overexpression or gene silencing using promoters (constitutive or inducible) and terminators; orientation affects expression.

38
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What are the two main methods of gene silencing described (antisense and RNAi)?

Antisense RNA binds to target mRNA to block translation or trigger degradation; RNAi uses dsRNA processed into siRNA/miRNA to guide degradation of target mRNA.